Preface
The function and state of the mind are of significant importance to the physical
health of an individual. The United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE)
is closely attuned to the substantial power of the mind-body relationship and tests this
area extensively on all three Steps of the examination. This review has been prepared
as a learning tool to help students rapidly recall information that they have learned in
the first two years of medical school in behavioral science, psychiatry, epidemiology and
related courses.
The third edition of
BRS Behavioral Sciencecontains 9 sections divided into 26 chap-
ters. All chapters start with a "Typical Board Question" (TBQ), which serves as an ex-
ample for the way that the subject matter of that chapter is tested on the USMLE. Each
chapter has been extensively updated to include the most current information. A total
of at least 500 questions and answers with detailed explanations are presented after
each chapter and in the Comprehensive Examination at the end of the book. Almost all
of these questions have been written expressly for this third edition and reflect the new
USMLE format utilizing clinical vignettes. Seventy-six tables are included in the book
to provide essential information quickly.
Acknowledg
ments
The author wishes to thank Emilie Linkins, Julie Scardiglia, and Elizabeth Niegin-
ski of Lippincott
Williams
and Wilkins for their encouragement, hard work, and prac-
tical assistance with the manuscript. The author also thanks Dr. Steven J. Schleifer,
Chairman, and Dr. Steven S. Simring, Vice-Chairman for Education, both of the De-
partment of Psychiatry of the New Jersey Medical School, for their enthusiasm, help,
and support for this effort. Special thanks to Dr. Marian Passannante of the Depart-
ment of Preventive Medicine and Community Health and Dr. Allan Siegel of the De-
partment of
Neurosciences
for their generous contributions of time and knowledge and
Todd Flannery for his help with the manuscript. Finally and as always, the author
thanks with great affection and respect the caring, involved medical students with
whom she has had the high honor of working over the years.
The Beginning of Life:
Pregnancy through Preschool
Typical Board Question
A mother brings her 8-month-old child in to see the physician for a well-baby checkup. The
mother appears concerned. She tells the doctor that the child recently saw an aunt whom
he had not seen in 6 months. When the aunt approached him, the child cried, seemed fear-
ful, and clung tightly to his mother_ The doctor correctly tells the mother that this fearful,
clinging behavior
(A) indicates that the child is developmentally
delayed
(B) indicates that the child is emotionally disturbed
(C) indicates
that
the child
has
been
abused
by his aunt
(D) is more likely to occur in infants exposed to many
different
caregivers
(E) occurs in
normal infants
of this age
when
they are confronted with
an unfamiliar per-
son
(See
"Answers
and
Explanations"
at
end of
Chapter)
I.
Pregnancy
A. Emotions
l.
Mood changes are common during pregnancy and may be caused by bi-
ological factors (e.g., hormonal fluctuations) as well as psychological
factors (e.g., concern over loss of physical attractiveness).
2.
Pseudocyesis (false pregnancy), the occurrence of many symptoms of
pregnancy although conception has not taken place, may occur in women
who have a strong wish to be pregnant or a strong fear of preg-
nancy.
3.
Many pregnant women form a close emotional relationship with their un-
born infant, thus beginning the bonding process prior to birth (See III A).
B. The marital relationship
1.
Many obstetricians suggest cessation of sexual intercourse about 4 weeks
prior to the expected date of delivery.
2.
Reduction in sexual activity for any reason can put a strain on the mar-
Behavioral Science
ov
erall
Childbirth
A.
B.
Ethnic Group
riage. Extramarital affairs conducted by the husband, if they occur, are
more likely to occur during the last 3 months of the wife's pregnancy.
Birth rate, infant mortality, and cesarean birth
1.
About 4 million children are born each year in the United States.
2. Infant mortality
a. In part because the United States does not have socialized medi-
cine (health care for all citizens paid for by the government through
taxes), the infant mortality rate in the United States is high com-
pared with rates in other developed countries (see also Chapter 23).
b.
Low socioeconomic status, which is related in part to ethnicity,
is associated with high infant mortality (Table 1-1).
3.
Cesarean birth
a.
The number of cesarean births increased from the 1960s to the
1990s, partly because of physicians' fears of malpractice suits if an in-
fant died or was injured during vaginal childbirth.
b.
Recently, however, the number of cesarean births (currently 21% of all
births) has leveled off or even declined, partly in response to increas-
ing evidence that women often undergo unnecessary surgical proce-
dures.
Premature birth
1.
Premature births are defined as those following a gestation of less than
34 weeks or in which the birth weight is under 2500 g.
2.
Premature births, which are associated with low income, maternal ill-
ness or malnutrition, and young maternal age, occur in 6% of births to
white women and 13% of births to African-American women.
3.
Premature birth puts the child at greater risk for emotional, behavioral
and learning problems, physical disability, and mental retardation.
C. Postpartum reactions
1.
Baby blues
a.
Many women experience an emotional reaction called "baby blues"
or "postpartum blues" lasting up to 1 week after childbirth.
Table
1-1.
Ethnicity and Infant Mortality in the United States (1996)
White, Asian American, and Mexican, Cuban,
and other Hispanic American
Puerto Rican American
Native
American (American Indian)
African-American
Infant Deaths per 1000 Live Births
8.6
8.8
14.2
7.2
Chapter 1
The Beginning of Life: Pregnancy through Preschool
b. This reaction results from psychological factors (e.g., the emotional
stress of childbirth, the feelings of added responsibility), as well as
physiological factors (e.g., changes in hormone levels, fatigue).
c.
Treatment involves support and practical help with the infant.
2.
Major depression and brief psychotic disorder with postpartum
onset (postpartum psychosis) are reactions which are more serious than
postpartum blues and which are treated with antidepressant and an-
tipsychotic medications (Table 1-2) (and see Chapters 11 and 12).
III. Infancy: Birth to 15 Months
A. Bonding of the parent to the infant
1.
Bonding between the caregiver and the infant is enhanced by physical
contact between the two.
2.
Bonding may be adversely affected if:
a.
The child is of low birth weight or ill, leading to separation from
the mother after delivery
b. There are problems in the mother-father relationship
3.
Women who take classes preparing them for childbirth have shorter
labors, fewer medical complications, less need for medication, and have
closer initial interactions with their infants.
B. Attachment of the infant to the parent
1.
The principal psychological task of infancy is the formation of an inti-
mate attachment to the primary caregiver, usually the mother.
Table 1-2. Postpartum Maternal Reactions
Maternal
Reaction
Incidence
Onset of
Symptoms
Duration of
Symptoms
Characteristics
Postpartum blues
33%-50%
Within a
Up to 1 week
Exaggerated
("baby blues")
few days
after delivery
emotionality
after delivery and
tearfulness
Interacting well
with friends
and family
Good grooming
Major depressive
5%-10%
Within 4 Up to 1 year
Feelings of
episode
weeks after
without
hopelessness
delivery
treatment;
and help-
3-6 weeks
lessness
with treatment
Lack of pleasure
or interest in
usual activities
Poor grooming
Brief psychotic
0.1%-0.2%
Within 2-3
Up to 1 month
Hallucinations,
disorder,
weeks after
delusions, or
postpartum
delivery
other psychotic
onset ("postpartum
symptoms
psychosis")
Mother may
harm infant
Behavioral Science
2.
Separation from the primary caregiver between 6-12 months of age
leads to initial loud protests from the infant.
3.
With continued absence of the mother, the infant is at risk for anaclitic de-
pression, in which he is withdrawn and unresponsive toward others.
a.
An infant may suffer from anaclitic depression even when he is living
with his mother if the mother is physically and emotionally dis-
tant and insensitive to his needs.
b.
Depressed infants may exhibit "failure to thrive" which includes
poor physical growth and poor health.
C. Studies of attachment
1.
Harry Harlow demonstrated that infant monkeys reared in relative iso-
lation by surrogate artificial mothers do not develop normal mating,
maternal, and social behaviors as adults.
a.
Males may be more affected than females by such isolation.
b.
Young monkeys raised in isolation for less than 6 months can be re-
habilitated by playing with normal young monkeys.
2.
Ren6 Spitz documented that children without proper mothering (e.g.,
those in orphanages) show severe developmental retardation, poor
health, and higher death rates ("hospitalism") in spite of adequate
physical care.
3.
Partly due to such findings, the "foster care" system was established for
young children in the United States who do not have adequate home sit-
uations. "Foster families" are those who have been approved and funded
by the state of residence to take care of a child in their homes.
D. Characteristics of the infant
1.
Reflexive behavior. At birth, the normal infant possesses simple re-
flexes such as the startle reflex (Moro reflex), the palmar grasp reflex,
Babinski's reflex, and the rooting reflex. All of these reflexes disappear
during the first year of life (Table 1-3).
2.
Motor, social, verbal, and cognitive development (Table 1-4)
a.
Although there is a reflexive smile present at birth, the social smile
is one of the first markers of the infant's responsiveness to another in-
dividual.
cable 1-3. Reflexes Present at Birth and the Age at Which They Disappear
Reflex
Description
Age of disappearance
Palmar grasp
The child's fingers grasp objects
2 months
placed in the palm
looting reflex The child's head turns in the
3 months
direction of a stroke on the cheek
as though seeking a nipple
Startle (Moro) reflex
When the child is startled, the
4 months
arms and legs extend
3abinski reflex
Dorsiflexion of the largest toe when
12 months
the plantar surface of the child's
foot is stroked
tracking reflex
The child visually follows a human face
Continues
Chapter 1
The Beginning of Life: Pregnancy through
Preschool
/
5
Table 1-4.
Motor, Social, Verbal, and Cognitive Development of the Infant
Pulls up to stand
Plays social
Transfers toys to
games such as
other hand
peek-a-boo,
Picks up toys and
waves "bye-bye"
food using "pincer"
(thumb and
forefinger) grasp
11-15 months
Walks unassisted
Fears separation
Says first word
from primary
Understands words
caregiver
(separation
anxiety)
b.
Crying and withdrawing in the presence of an unfamiliar person
(stranger anxiety) is normal and begins at about 7 months of age.
i.
This behavior indicates that the infant has developed a specific at
tachment to the mother and is able to distinguish her from a
stranger.
ii.
Infants exposed to many caregivers are less likely to show
stranger anxiety than those exposed to few caregivers.
E. Theories of development
1.
Chess and Thomas showed that there are
endogenous differences
in the temperaments of infants which remain quite stable for the first
25 years of life. These differences include such characteristics as reac-
tivity to stimuli, cyclic behavior patterns such as sleeping, responsive-
ness to people, mood, distractibility, and attention span.
2.
Sigmund Freud described development in terms of the parts of the body
from which the most pleasure is derived at each stage of development
(e.g., the "oral stage" occurs during the first year of life).
3.
Erik Erikson described development in terms of critical periods for the
achievement of social goals; if a specific goal is not achieved at a specific
age, the individual will never achieve the goal. For example, in Erikson's
stage of basic trust versus mistrust, the child must learn to trust oth-
ers during the first year of life or she will never be able to trust others.
4.
Jean Piaget described development in terms of learning capabilities of
the child at each age.
Age
Motor
Skill Area
Social
Verbal and Cognitive
2-3 months
Lifts head when
Smiles in response
Coos or gurgles
lying on stomach
to a human face
(the "social smile")
5-6 months
Turns over
Forms an attachment
Babbles (repeats
Sits unassisted
to primary caregiver
single sounds over
Grasps with entire
Recognizes familiar
and over)
hand ("raking")
people
7-11 months
Crawls on hands
Shows stranger
Imitates sounds
and knees
anxiety
Uses gestures
Behavioral Science
IV The Toddler Years: 15 Months to 2V2 Years
V
5.
Margaret Mahler described early development as a sequential process
of separation of the child from the mother or primary caregiver.
A. Attachment
1.
The major theme of the second year of life is to separate from the
mother or primary caregiver, a process which is complete by about age 3.
2.
There is no evidence that daily separation from working parents in a
good day care setting has short- or long-term negative consequences for
children.
B.
Motor, social, verbal, and cognitive characteristics of the toddler
(see Table 1-4)
The Preschool Child: 2Y to 6 Years
A. Attachment
1.
After reaching 3 years of age a child should be able to spend a few hours
away from the mother in the care of others (e.g., in day care).
2.
A child who cannot do this after age 3 suffers from separation anxiety
disorder (see Chapter 15).
B. Characteristics
1.
The child's vocabulary increases rapidly (Table 1-5) and the child of-
ten finds humor in using "bathroom" profanity (e.g., saying "pee-pee").
2.
The birth of a sibling is likely to occur in the preschool years and sibling
rivalry may occur.
3.
Sibling rivalry or other life stress, such as moving, may result in a child's
use of regression, a defense mechanism in which the child temporarily
behaves in a "babylike" way (e.g., he starts wetting the bed again).
4.
The child can distinguish fantasy from reality (e.g., he knows that imag-
inary friends are not "real" people), although the line between them may
still not be drawn sharply.
5.
Other aspects of motor, social, verbal, and cognitive development of the
preschool child can be found in Table 1-5.
C. Changes at 6 years of age: formation of the conscience
1.
At the end of the preschool years (about age 6), the child's conscience
(the superego of Freud) and sense of morality begin to be developed.
2.
After age 6, the child can put himself in another person's place (empa-
thy) and behave in a caring and sharing way toward others.
3.
Morality and empathy increase further during the school-age years (see
Chapter 2).
Chapter 1
Table 1-5. Motor, Social, Verbal, and Cognitive Development of the Toddler and Preschool Child
The Beginning of Life: Pregnancy through Preschool
Social
Skill Area
Moves away from and then
returns to the mother
for reassurance
("rapprochement")
Shows negativity (e.g.,
the favorite word is "no")
Plays alongside but
not with another
child ("parallel play":
2-4 years of age)
Has a sense of self
as male or female
(gender identity)
Usually achieves bowel and
bladder control
[problems such as
encopresis ("soiling") and
enuresis ("bedwetting")
cannot be diagnosed
until 4 and 5 years of
age, respectively]
Can spend part of the day
with adults other than
parents (e.g., in preschool
setting)
Begins to play cooperatively
with other children
Engages in role playing
(e.g., "I'll be the mommy,
you be the daddy")
May have imaginary
companions
Has curiosity about sex
differences, (e.g., plays
"doctor" with other children)
Has nightmares and transient
phobias (e.g., of "monsters")
Has romantic feelings about
the opposite sex parent
(the "oedipal phase") at
4-5 years of age
Has overconcern about
physical injury at 4-5
years of age
Begins to develop an
internalized moral sense
of right and wrong
Verbal and cognitive
Uses about 10
individual words
Says own name
Uses about 250 words
Speaks in 2-word
sentences and uses
pronouns (e.g., "me do")
Names body parts and
objects
Uses about 900 words
in speech
Understands about
3,500 words
Speaks in complete
sentences (e.g., "I can
do it myself ")
Shows good verbal self-
expression (e.g., can
tell detailed stories)
Comprehends and uses
prepositions (e.g.,
under, above)
Shows further improve-
ment in verbal and
cognitive skills
Begins to think logically
(see Chapter 2)
Begins to read
Age
Motor
18 months
Throws a ball
Stacks 3 blocks
Climbs stairs one
foot at a time
Scribbles on paper
2 years
Kicks a ball
Balances on one
foot for one second
Stacks 6 blocks
Feeds self with
fork and spoon
3 years
Rides a tricycle
Undresses and
partially dresses
without help
Identifies some
colors
Climbs stairs using
alternate feet
Stacks 9 blocks
Cuts paper with
scissors
Copies a circle O
4 years
Catches a ball
with arms
Dresses
independently, using
buttons and zippers
Grooms self (e.g.,
brushes teeth)
Hops on one foot
Copies a cross 0
5 years
Catches a ball with
two hands
Draws a person in
detail, (e.g., with
arms, hair, eyes)
Skips using alternate
feet
Copies a square 0
6 years
Ties shoelaces
Rides a 2-wheeled
bicycle
Prints letters
Copies a triangle A
Directions: Each of the numbered items or incomplete statements in this section is followed by
answers or by completions of the statement. Select the one lettered answer or completion that
is best in each case.
1.
An American couple would like to adopt a
10-month-old Russian child. However, they are
concerned because the child has been in an or-
phanage ever since he was separated from his
birth mother 2 months ago. Which of the fol-
lowing characteristics is the couple most likely
to see in the child at this time?
(A)
Loud crying and protests at the loss of his
mother
(B)
Increased responsiveness to adults
(C)
Normal development of motor skills
(D)
Depression
(E)
Normal development of social skills
2.
Although he previously slept in his own bed,
after his parents separate, a 4-year-old boy in-
sists on sleeping in his mother's bed every
night. He continues to do well in nursery school
and plays well with friends. The best descrip-
tion of this boy's behavior is
(A)
separation anxiety disorder
(B)
normal with regression
(C)
delayed development
(D)
lack of basic trust
(E)
poor superego development
3.
You conduct a well-child checkup on a nor-
mal 2-year-old girl. She is most likely to show
which of the following skills or characteristics?
(A)
Speaks in 2-word sentences
(B)
Is completely toilet trained
(C)
Can comfortably spend most of the day
away from her mother
(D)
Can ride a 2-wheeled bicycle
(E)
Engages in cooperative play
4.
You conduct a well-child checkup on a nor-
mal 4-year-old boy. He is most likely to show
which of the following skills or characteristics?
(A)
Identifies colors
(B)
Reads a 3-word sentence
(C)
Refuses to play with girls
(D)
Ties shoelaces
(E)
Has an internalized moral sense of right
and wrong
Review Test
5.
A mother brings her normal 4-month-old
child to the pediatrician for a well-bat y exam-
ination.
Which of the following developmental
signposts can the doctor expect to be present in
this infant?
(A)
Stranger anxiety
(B)
Social smile
(C)
Rapprochement
(D)
Core gender identity
(E)
Phobias
6.
The overall infant mortality rate in the
United States in 1996 was approximately
(A)
1 per 1000 live births
(B)
3 per 1000 live births
(C)
7 per 1000 live births
(D)
21 per 1000 live births
(E)
40 per 1000 live births
7.
The most important psychological task for a
child between birth and 15 months is the de-
velopment of
(A)
the ability to think logically
(B)
speech
(C)
stranger anxiety
(D)
a conscience
(E)
an intimate attachment to the mother or
primary caregiver
8.
A 28-year-old woman and her husband are
preparing for childbirth by taking a formal
training program. Her physician can expect that
when compared with women who do not take a
formal training program, this woman will expe-
rience
(A)
more medical complications
(B)
longer labor
(C)
closer initial interactions with her infant
(D)
more need for medication during labor
(E)
higher likelihood of postpartum emotional
reactions
Chapter 1
The Beginning of Life: Pregnancy through Preschool
9.
A new mother develops a sad mood 2 days
12. Sitting unassisted
following the birth of her child. Which of the
(A)
0-3 months
following factors is most likely to contribute to
B
5-6 months
the development of this condition?
( )
(C)
7-10 months
(A)
A positive childbirth experience
(D)
11-15 months
(B)
Breastfeeding
(E)
16-30 months
(C)
Feelings of decreased responsibility
(D)
Changes in hormone levels
13. Showing the rooting reflex
(E) Increased energy
(A)
0-3 months
10.
A well-trained, highly qualified obstetri-
(B)
5-6 months
cian has a busy practice. Which of the follow-
(C)
7-10 months
ing is most likely to be true about postpartum
(D)
11-15 months
reactions in this doctor's patients?
(E)
16-30 months
(A)
Postpartum blues will occur in about 10%
of patients
(B)
Major depression will occur in about 25%
of patients
(C)
Postpartum psychosis will occur in about
8% of patients
(D)
Postpartum psychosis will last about 1
year
(E)
Postpartum blues will last up to one week
Questions 11-16
For each developmental milestone, select the
age at which it commonly first appears.
11.
Crawling on hands and knees
(A)
0-3 months
(B)
5-6 months
(C)
7-10 months
(D)
11-15 months
(E)
16-30 months
14.
Using a "pincer" grasp
(A)
0-3 months
(B)
5-6 months
(C)
7-10 months
(D)
11-15 months
(E)
16-30 months
15.
Using pronouns in speech
(A)
0-3 months
(B)
5-6 months
(C)
7-10 months
(D)
11-15 months
(E)
16-30 months
Answers and Explanations
TBQ-E. Stranger anxiety (the tendency to cry and cling to the mother in the presence of an un-
familiar person) develops in normal infants at 7-9 months of age. It does not indicate that the
child is developmentally delayed, emotionally disturbed, or that the child has been abused, but
rather that the child can now distinguish familiar from unfamiliar people. Stranger anxiety is
seen less frequently in children exposed to many different caregivers.
1-D. This child is likely to show depression at this time. Loud protests occur initially when the
mother leaves the child. With her continued absence of over 2 months and the child's placement
in an orphanage, this child will suffer more serious consequences. These consequences include
depression, decreased responsiveness to adults and deficits in the development of social and mo-
tor skills.
2-B. The best description of this boy's behavior is normal with regression (i.e., a defense mech-
anism involving acting like a child of a younger age). Because he continues to do well in nursery
school and plays well with friends, this is not separation anxiety disorder. There is also no evi-
dence of delayed development, lack of basic trust, or poor superego (conscience) development (see
Chapter 6).
3-A. Two-year-old children speak in 2-word sentences (e.g., "Me go"). Toilet training or the ability
to spend most of the day away from the mother does not usually occur until age 3. Children engage
in cooperative play starting at about age 4 and can ride a 2-wheeled bicycle at about age 6.
4-A. Children can identify some colors by about age 3. The ability to tie shoelaces develops at
about 6 years of age. Having an internalized moral sense of right and wrong (the superego), read-
ing, and preference for playing with children of the same sex are characteristic of latency age
children (7-11 years-See Chapter 2).
5-B. The social smile (smiling in response to seeing a human face) is one of the first developmen-
tal milestones to appear in the infant and is present by 1-2 months of age. Stranger anxiety (fear
of unfamiliar people) appears at about 7 months of age and indicates that the infant has a specific
attachment to the mother. Rapprochement (the tendency to run away from the mother and then
run back for comfort and reassurance) appears at about 16 months of age. Core gender identity (the
sense of self as male or female) is established between 2 and 3 years of age. Transient phobias (ir-
rational fears) occur in normal children, appearing most commonly at 4-6 years of age.
6-C. In 1996, the overall infant mortality rate in the United States was about 7 per 1000 live
births. This rate, which is closely associated with socioeconomic status, was about 14 per 1000
live births in African-American infants and about 6 per 1000 live births in white infants.
7-E. The most important psychological task of infancy is the development of an intimate at-
tachment to the mother or primary caregiver. Stranger anxiety, which normally appears at about
7 months of age, demonstrates that the child has developed this attachment and can distinguish
its
mother from others. Speech, the ability to think logically, and the development of a conscience
are skills which are developed over the first few years of life.
8-C.
Women preparing for childbirth with a formal training program typically experience closer
initial interactions with their infants, equal or lower likelihood of postpartum emotional reac-
tions, shorter labors, fewer medical complications, and less need for medication during labor.
9-D. Changes in hormone levels, fatigue, physical and emotional stresses of childbirth and feelings
of added responsibility contribute to the development of a sad mood in new mothers, otherwise
known as the "baby blues." Breastfeeding usually is not a contributing factor in developing a sad
mood after childbirth.
10-E. Postpartum psychosis is rare, occurring in less than 1% of new mothers and lasting up to
one month after childbirth. Postpartum blues may occur in one third to one half of new mothers,
10
Chapter 1
The Beginning of Life: Pregnancy through Preschool
/
11
and lasts up to one week. Intervention involves support and practical help with the child. Post-
partum depression occurs in 5%-10% of new mothers and is treated primarily with antidepres-
sant medication.
11-C. Crawling on hands and knees commonly begins between 7 and 10 months of age.
12-B. Infants can usually sit unassisted at about 6 months of age.
13-A. The rooting reflex is present at birth.
14-C. The thumb and forefinger "pincer" grasp begins at about 8 months of age. Prior to this, the
child picks up objects using 4 fingers (no thumb) in a raking motion.
1
5-E. Children start using pronouns (e.g., "me") at about 2 years of age.
School Age, Adolescence,
Special Issues of
Development, and Adulthood
Typical Board Question
A 10-year-old girl with Down syndrome and an IQ of 60 is brought to the physician's office
for a school physical. When the doctor
interviews this girl, he is most
likely to find that she
(A)
has good' self-esteem
(B)
knows
that she
is handicapped
(C) communicates well with peers
(D) competes successfully with peers
(E) is socially outgoing
(See "Answers
and
Explanations"
at
end of Chapter)
I.
Latency or School Age: 7-11 Years
A. Motor development. The normal grade school child, 7-11 years of age, en-
gages in complex motor tasks (e.g., plays baseball, skips rope).
B. Social characteristics. The school age child:
1.
Prefers to play with children of the same sex
2. Identifies with the parent of the same sex
3.
Has relationships with adults other than parents (e.g., teachers,
group leaders)
4.
Demonstrates little interest in psychosexual issues
5.
Has internalized a moral sense of right and wrong (conscience) and
understands how to follow rules
C. Cognitive characteristics. The school age child:
1. Is industrious and organized (gathers collections of objects)
1
4
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Behavioral Science
2.
Has the capacity for logical thought and can determine that objects
have more than one property (e.g., an object can be red and metal)
11.
Adolescence: 11-20 Years
2
3
4
5
3.
Understands the concept of "conservation." This concept involves the
understanding that a quantity of a substance remains the same re-
gardless of the size of the container it is in (e.g., two containers may con-
tain the same amount of water even though one is a tall, thin tube and
one is a short, wide bowl).
A.
Early adolescence (11-14 years of age)
1.
Puberty occurs in early adolescense and is marked by:
a.
The development of primary and secondary sex characteristics
(Table 2-1) and increased skeletal growth
b.
First menstruation (menarche) in girls, which on average occurs at
11-12 years of age
c.
First ejaculation in boys, which on average occurs at 13-14 years of
age
d.
Cognitive maturation and formation of the personality
e.
Sex drives, which are expressed through physical activity and
masturbation (daily masturbation is normal).
2.
Early adolescents show strong sensitivity to the opinions of peers but are
generally obedient and unlikely to seriously challenge parental authority.
3.
Alterations in expected patterns of development (e.g., acne, obe-
sity, late breast development) may lead to psychological problems.
B.
Middle adolescence (14-17 years of age)
1.
Characteristics
a.
There is great interest in gender roles, body image, and popularity.
b.
Heterosexual crushes (love for an unattainable person such as a rock
star) are common.
c.
Homosexual experiences may occur. Although parents may be-
come alarmed, such practicing is part of normal development.
d.
Efforts to develop an identity by adopting current teen fashion in
Table 2-1. Tanner Stages of Sexual Development
Stage
Characteristics
Genitalia and associated structures are the same as in childhood; nipples, (papillae)
are slightly elevated in girls
Scant, straight pubic hair, testes enlarge, scrotum develops texture; slight elevation
of breast tissue in girls
Pubic hair increases over the pubis and becomes curly, penis increases in length
and testes enlarge
Penis increases in width, glans develops, scrotal skin darkens; areola rises above
the rest of the breast in girls
Male and female genitalia are like adult; pubic hair now is also on thighs, areola is
no longer elevated above the breast in girls
Chapter 2
School Age, Adolescence, Special Issues of Development, and Adulthood
/
15
clothing and music and preference for spending time with peers over
family is normal, but may lead to conflict with parents.
2.
Risk-taking behavior
a.
Readiness to challenge parental rules and feelings of omnipotence
may result in risk taking behavior (e.g., failure to use condoms, dri-
ving too fast, smoking).
b.
Education with respect to obvious short term benefits rather than
references to long term consequences of behavior are more likely to
decrease teenagers' unwanted behavior.
-For example, to discourage smoking, telling teenagers that their
teeth will stay white will be more helpful than telling them that they
will avoid lung cancer in 30 years.
C. Late adolescence (17-20 years of age)
1.
Development
a.
Older adolescents develop morals, ethics, self-control and a realis-
tic appraisal of their own abilities; they become concerned with hu-
manitarian issues and world problems.
b. Some adolescents, but not all, develop the ability for abstract reason-
ing (Piaget's stage of formal operations).
2. In the effort to form one's own identity, an identity crisis commonly de-
velops.
a. If the identity crisis is not handled effectively, the adolescent may suf-
fer from role confusion in which he does not know where he belongs
in the world.
b. With role confusion, the adolescent may display behavioral abnor-
malities with criminality or an interest in cults.
D. Teenage sexuality
1. In the United States, first sexual intercourse occurs on average at 16
years of age; by 19 years of age, 80% of men and 70% of women have had
sexual intercourse.
2.
About 65% of teenagers do not use contraceptives for reasons which in-
clude the conviction that they will not get pregnant, lack of access to con-
traceptives, and lack of education about which methods are most effective.
3.
Physicians may counsel minors (persons under 18 years of age) and pro-
vide them with contraceptives without parental knowledge or consent.
E. Teenage pregnancy
1.
Teenage pregnancy is a social problem in the United States. Although the
birth rate and abortion rate in American teenagers are currently
decreasing, teenagers give birth to over 500,000 infants (12,000 of these
infants are born to mothers under 15 years of age) and have about
400,000 abortions annually.
2.
Abortion is legal in the United States. However, in about half of the
states, minors must obtain parental consent for abortion.
3.
Factors predisposing adolescent girls to pregnancy include depression,
poor school achievement, and having divorced parents.
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6
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Behavioral Science
4. Pregnant teenagers are at high risk for obstetric complications be-
cause they are less likely to get prenatal care and because they are phys-
ically immature.
III.
Special Issues in Child Development
A.
Illness and death in childhood and adolescence. A child's reaction to
illness and death is closely associated with the child's developmental stage.
1.
During the toddler years (18 months to 2 Y2 years) hospitalized children
fear separation from the parent more than they fear bodily harm, pain,
or death.
2.
During the preschool years (2!~ to 6 years) the child's greatest fear
when hospitalized is of bodily harm.
a.
The preschool-age child does not fully understand the meaning of
death.
b. The child may expect that a dead friend, pet, or relative will come
back to life.
3.
School-age children (7-11 years of age) cope relatively well with hospi-
talization. Thus, this is the best age to perform elective surgery.
Children of this age can understand the finality of death.
4. Ill adolescents may challenge the authority of doctors and nurses and
resist being different than peers. Both of these factors can result in non-
compliance with medical advice.
5.
A child with an ill sibling or parent may respond by acting badly at
school or home [use of the defense mechanism of "acting out" (see Chap-
ter 611)].
B. Adoption
1.
An adoptive parent is a person who voluntarily becomes the legal par-
ent of a child who is not his or her genetic offspring.
2. Adopted children, particularly those adopted after infancy, may be at in-
creased risk for behavioral problems in childhood and adolescence.
3.
Children should be told by their parents that they are adopted at the
earliest age possible to avoid the chance of others telling them first.
C.
Mental retardation
1.
Etiology
a.
The most common genetic cause of mental retardation is Down syn-
drome; the second is Fragile X syndrome.
b.
Other causes include metabolic factors affecting the mother or fetus,
prenatal and postnatal infection and maternal substance abuse;
many cases of mental retardation are of unknown etiology.
2.
Mildly [intelligence quotient (IQ) of 50-69; see Chapter 8] and moderately
(IQ of 35-49) mentally retarded children and adolescents commonly know
they are handicapped. Because of this knowledge, they may become
frustrated and socially withdrawn in part because of poor self-esteem
due to difficulty in communicating and competing with peers.
Chapter 2
School Age, Adolescence, Special Issues of Development, an
dAdulthood
/
17
3.
The Vineland Social Maturity Scale can be used to evaluate social
skills and skills for daily living in mentally retarded and other challenged
individuals.
4.
Avoidance of pregnancy in mentally retarded adults can become an is-
sue particularly in residential social settings (e.g., summer camp). Long-
acting, reversible contraceptive methods such as subcutaneous
progesterone implants can be particularly useful for these individuals.
N Early Adulthood: 20-40 Years
A. Characteristics
1.
At about 30 years of age, there is a period of reappraisal of one's life.
2.
The adult's role in society is defined, physical development peaks, and
the adult becomes independent.
B. Responsibilities and relationships
1.
The development of an intimate (e.g., close, sexual) relationship
with another person occurs.
2.
According to Erikson, this is the stage of intimacy versus isolation;
if the individual does not develop the ability to sustain an intimate rela-
tionship by this stage of life, he or she suffers emotional isolation in the
future.
3.
By 30 years of age, most Americans are married and have children.
4.
During their middle thirties, many women alter their lifestyles by re-
turning to work or school or by resuming their careers.
V Middle Adulthood: 40-65 Years
A. Characteristics. The person in middle adulthood possesses more power
and authority than at other life stages.
B. Responsibilities. The individual either maintains a continued sense of
productivity or develops a sense of emptiness (Erikson's stage of genera-
tivity versus stagnation).
C. Relationships
1.
Seventy to eighty percent of men in their middle forties or early fifties ex-
hibit a midlife crisis. This may lead to:
a.
A change in
profession or lifestyle
b. Infidelity, separation, or divorce
c. Increased use of alcohol or drugs
d.
Depression
2.
Midlife crisis is associated with an awareness of one's own aging and
death and severe or unexpected lifestyle changes (e.g., death of a
spouse, loss of a job, serious illness).
1
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Behavioral Science
D. Climacterium is the change in physiologic function that occurs during
midlife.
1. In men, although hormone levels do not change significantly, a decrease
in muscle strength, endurance, and sexual performance (See Chapter 18)
occurs in midlife.
2. In women, menopause occurs.
a.
The ovaries stop functioning, and menstruation stops in the late for-
ties or early fifties.
b.
Absence of menstruation for one year defines the end of menopause.
To avoid unwanted pregnancy, contraceptive measures should be used
until at least one year following the last missed menstrual pe-
riod.
c.
Most women experience menopause with relatively few physical or
psychological problems.
d.
Vasomotor instability, called hot flashes or flushes, is a common
physical problem seen in women in all countries and cultural
groups. It may continue for years and can be relieved by estrogen re-
placement therapy.
Directions: Each of the numbered items or incomplete statements in this section is followed by
answers or by completions of the statement. Select the one lettered answer or completion that
is best in each case.
1.
A mother tells the physician that she is con-
cerned about her son because he consistently
engages in behavior which is dangerous and
potentially life-threatening. The age of her son
is
most likely to be
(A)
11 years
(B)
13 years
(C)
15 years
(D)
18 years
(E)
20 years
2.
A physician discovers that a 15-year-old pa-
tient is pregnant. Which of the following fac-
tors is likely to have contributed most to her
risk of pregnancy?
(A)
Living in a rural area
(B)
Depressed mood
(C)
Intact parental unit
(D)
Achievement in school
(E)
Education about contraceptive methods
3.
A 50-year-old male patient comes in for an
insurance physical. Which of the following de-
velopmental signposts is most likely to charac-
terize this man?
(A)
Decreased alcohol use
(B)
Peak physical development
(C)
Possession of power and authority
(D)
Strong resistance to changes in social re-
lationships
(E)
Strong resistance to changes in work re-
lationships
4.
A woman has recently gone through meno-
pause. Which of the following is most likely to
characterize this transition?
(A)
Sudden onset of symptoms
(B)
Cessation of menstruation
(C)
Severe depression
(D)
Severe anxiety
(E)
Occurrence in the fourth decade of life
5. Increase in penis width, development of the
glans, and darkening of scrotal skin character-
ize Tanner stage
(A)
1
(B)
2
(C)
3
(D) 4
(E)
5
Review Test
6.
The adoptive parents of a newborn ask their
physician when they should tell the child that
she is adopted. The pediatrician correctly sug-
gests that they tell her
(A)
when she questions them about her back-
ground
(B)
when she enters school
(C)
as soon as possible
(D)
at 4 years of age
(E) if she develops an illness that has a
known genetic basis
7.
A physician is conducting a school physical
on a normal 10-year-old girl. When interview-
ing the child, the physician is most likely to
find which of the following psychological char-
acteristics?
(A)
Lack of conscience formation
(B)
Poor capacity for logical thought
(C)
Identification with her father
(D)
Relatively stronger importance of friends
over family when compared to children of
younger ages
(E)
No preference with respect for the sex of
playmates
8.
A child's pet has recently died. The child be-
lieves that the pet will soon come back to life.
This child is most likely to be age
(A)
4 years
(B)
6 years
(C)
7 years
(D)
9 years
(E)
11 years
9.
A 5-year-old boy requires surgery to correct
an
inguinalhernia. When the child enters the
hospital to have surgery, his greatest fear is
likely to be
(A)
separation from his mother
(B)
the unknown environment
(C)
the possibility that he will die during
surgery
(D)
unfamiliar people
(E)
damage to his body
1
9
Answers and Explanations
TBQ-B. Mildly and moderately mentally retarded children are aware that they have a handi-
cap. They often have low self-esteem and may become socially withdrawn. In part, these prob-
lems occur because they have difficulty communicating with and competing with peers.
1-C. The age of this woman's son is most likely to be 15 years. Middle adolescents (14-17 years)
often challenge parental authority and have feelings of omnipotence (i.e., nothing bad will hap-
pen to them because they are all-powerful). Younger adolescents are unlikely to challenge
parental rules and authority. Older adolescents (18-20 years) have developed self-control and a
more realistic picture of their own abilities.
2-B. Teenagers who become pregnant frequently are depressed, come from homes where the par-
ents are divorced, have problems in school, and may not know about effective contraceptive meth-
ods. Studies have not indicated that living in a rural area is related to teenage pregnancy.
3-C.
While midlife is associated with the possession of power and authority, physical abilities
decline. This time of life is also associated with a midlife crisis which may include increased al-
cohol and drug use as well as an increased likelihood of changes in social and work relationships.
4-B.
Menopause is characterized by cessation of menstruation. Most women go through
menopause gradually at about 50 years of age and with few psychological or physical problems.
5-D. Increase in penis width, development of the glans and darkening of scrotal skin character-
ize Tanner stage 4. Stage 1 is characterized by slight elevation of the papillae, and stage 2 by the
presence of scant, straight pubic hair, testes enlargement, development of texture in scrotal skin,
and slight elevation of breast tissue. In stage 3, pubic hair increases over the pubis and becomes
curly, and the penis increases in length; in stage 5 male and female genitalia are much like those
of the adult.
6-C. The best time to tell a child she is adopted is as soon as pos:aible, usually when the child can
first understand language. Waiting any longer than this will increase the probability that some-
one else will tell the child before the parents are able to.
7-D.
When compared to younger ages, peers and non-familial adults become more important to
the latency age child and the family becomes less important. Children 7-11 years of age have the
capacity for logical thought, have a conscience, identify with the same-sex parent, and show a
strong preference for playmates of their own sex.
8-A. Preschool children usually cannot comprehend the meaning of death and commonly believe
that the dead person or pet will come back to life. Children over the age of 6 years commonly are
aware of the finality of death.
9-E. The greatest fear of the preschool child is damage to his body. Children younger than age 3
are more fearful of separation from parents, an unknown environment and unfamiliar people.
Fear of death is more prominent in older children who understand that death is not temporary.
Aging, Death,
and Bereavement
Typical
Board
Question
An 80-year-old patient tells you that she is concerned because she forgets the addresses of
people she
has
just met
and
takes longer than in the past to do the Sunday crossword puz-
zle. She enjoys family visits, lives comfortably on her own,
and shops and' cooks for
herself.
This patient
(A)
is
probably showing normal aging
(B)
is
probably suffering from Alzheimer's disease
(C) is probably suffering from depression
(D) is likely to develop an anxiety disorder
(E)
should be advised
not to live alone
(See "Answers and Explanations" at end of Chapter)
1.
Aging
A. Demographics
1.
By 2020, over 15% of the United States population will be more than 65
years of age.
2.
The fastest growing segment of the population is people over age 85.
3.
The average life expectancy in the United States is currently about 76
years; however, this figure varies greatly by gender and race (Table 3-1).
4.
Differences in life expectancies by gender and race have been decreasing
over the past few years.
5.
Gerontology, the study of aging, and geriatrics, the care of aging peo-
ple, have become important new medical fields.
B. Somatic and neurologic changes
1.
Strength and physical health gradually decline. This decline shows
great variability, but commonly includes impaired vision, hearing, and im-
mune responses; decreased muscle mass and strength; increased fat de-
posits; osteoporosis; decreased renal, pulmonary, and gastrointestinal func-
2
1
2
2
/
Behavioral Science
Table 3-1. Life Expectancy (in Years) at Birth in the United States by Sex and Race
(1996
for
African-American and White American;
1990
for Native American and Asian
American)
African-American
Native American White American
Asian American
Men
66
71
74
82
Women
74
79
80
86
tion, reduced bladder control, and decreased responsiveness to changes in
ambient temperature.
2.
Changes in the brain occur with aging.
a.
These changes include decreased weight, enlarged ventricles
and sulci, and decreased cerebral blood flow.
b. Senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are present in the
normally aging brain but to a lesser extent than in dementia
of the Alzheimer's type.
C.
Cognitive changes
1.
Although learning speed may decrease, in the absence of brain disease,
intelligence remains approximately the same throughout life.
2.
Slight memory problems may occur in normal aging, (e.g., the patient
may forget the name of a new acquaintance). However, these problems
do not interfere with the patient's functioning and he is able to live
independently.
D. Psychological changes
1. In late adulthood there is either a sense of ego integrity, (i.e., satisfaction,
and pride in one's past accomplishments) or a sense of despair and worth-
lessness (Erikson's stage of ego integrity versus despair). Many el-
derly people achieve ego integrity.
2.
Psychopathology and related problems
a.
Depression is the most common psychiatric disorder in the el-
derly. Suicide is more common in the elderly than in the general
population.
(1) Factors associated with depression in the elderly include loss of
spouse, other family members, and friends; decreased social sta-
tus; and decline of health.
(2)
Depression may mimic and thus be misdiagnosed as
Alzheimer's disease. This misdiagnosed disorder is re-
ferred to as pseudodementia because it is associated with
memory loss and cognitive problems (see Chapter 14)
(3) Depression can be treated successfully with supportive psy-
chotherapy in conjunction with pharmacotherapy or electrocon-
vulsive therapy (see Chapter 15).
b. Sleep patterns change, resulting in loss of sleep, poor sleep quality,
or both (see Chapter 10).
c.
Anxiety and fearfulness may be associated with realistic fear-inducing
situations (e.g., worries about developing a physical illness or falling
and breaking a bone).
d.
Alcohol-related disorders are often unidentified but are present in
10%-15% of the geriatric population.
Chapter 3
Aging, Death, and Bereavement
/
23
e.
Psychoactive agents may produce different effects in the elderly
than in younger patients.
E. Longevity has been associated with many factors, including:
1.
Family history of longevity
2.
Continuation of physical and occupational activity
3.
Advanced education
4.
Social support systems, including marriage
II.
Stages of Dying And Death.
According to Elizabeth Kübler-Ross, the process of dying involves five
stages. The stages usually occur in the following order, but also may be present
simultaneously or occur in another order.
A. Denial. The patient refuses to believe that she is dying ("The laboratory
made an error").
B. Anger. The patient may become angry at the physician and hospital staff ("It
is your fault that I am dying. You should have checked on me weekly"). Physi-
cians must learn not to take such comments personally (see also Chapter 21).
C. Bargaining. The patient may try to strike a bargain with God or some higher
being ("I will give half of my money to charity if I can get rid of this disease").
D. Depression. The patient becomes preoccupied with death and may become
emotionally detached ("I feel so distant from others and so hopeless").
E.
Acceptance. The patient is calm and accepts her fate ("I am ready to go
now").
III. Bereavement (Normal Grief) Versus Depression (Abnormal
Grief).
After the loss of a loved one, there is a normal grief reaction. This reaction also
occurs with other losses, such as loss of a body part, or, for younger people, with
a miscarriage or abortion. A normal grief reaction must be distinguished from
depression, which is pathologic.
A. Characteristics of normal grief (bereavement)
1.
Grief is characterized initially by shock and denial.
2. In normal grief, the bereaved may experience an illusion (see also Table
11-1) that the deceased person is physically present.
3.
Normal grief generally subsides after 1-2 years, although some features
may continue longer. Even after they have subsided, symptoms may re-
turn on holidays or special occasions (the "anniversary reaction").
4. The mortality rate is high for close relatives (especially widowed
men) in the first year of bereavement.
B. Comparison between normal and abnormal grief reactions can be
found in Table 3-2.
2
4
/
Behavioral Science
Table 3-2. Comparison between Normal Grief Reactions and Abnormal Grief Reactions
Normal grief reaction (Bereavement)
Minor weight loss (e.g., 1-3 pounds)
Minor sleep disturbances
Some guilty feelings
Illusions (thinking that one briefly
sees the deceased person)
Attempts to return to work and social activities
Cries and expresses sadness
Severe symptoms resolve within 2 months
Moderate symptoms subside within 1 year
Treatment includes increased calls and
visits to the physician, supportive
psychotherapy, and short-acting
benzodiazepines for temporary
problems with sleep
(
Adapted from Fadem B, Simring S:
High Yield Psychiatry.
Baltimore,
Williams
& Wilkins, 1998, p 31.)
C. Physician's response to death
2.
3.
Abnormal
grief reaction (Depression)
Significant weight loss (e.g., > 8 pounds)
Significant sleep disturbances
Intense feelings of guilt and worthlessness
Hallucinations and delusions (hearing the
dead person talking)
Resumes few, if any, work or social activities
Considers or attempts suicide
Severe symptoms persist for > 2 months
Moderate symptoms persist for > 1 year
Treatment includes antidepressants,
antipsychotics, or electroconvulsive
therapy
The major responsibility of the physician is to give support to the
dying patient and the patient's family.
Generally, physicians make the patient completely aware of the di-
agnosis and prognosis. However, a physician should follow the patient's
lead as to how much he or she wants to know about the condition. With
the patient's permission, the physician may tell the family the diag-
nosis and other details of the illness (see Chapter
23).
Physicians often feel a sense of failure at not preventing death. They may
deal with this sense by becoming emotionally detached from the patient
in order to deal with his imminent death. Such detachment can preclude
helping the patient and family through this important transition.
1.
A 70-year-old patient whose wife died 8
months ago reports that he sometimes wakes
up an hour earlier than usual and often cries
when he thinks about his wife. He also tells
you that on one occasion he briefly followed a
woman down the street who resembled his late
wife. The patient also relates that he has re-
joined his bowling team and enjoys visits with
his grandchildren. For this patient, the best
recommendation of the physician is
(A)
medication for sleep
(B)
antidepressant medication
(C)
regular phone calls and visits to "check in"
with the doctor
(D)
psychotherapy
(E)
a neuropsychological evaluation for
Alzheimer's disease
2.
A 70-year-old patient whose wife died 8
months ago appears unshaven and disheveled.
He has lost 11 pounds, has persistent problems
sleeping and has no interest in interacting
with friends and family. For this patient, the
best recommendation of the physician is
(A)
medication for sleep
(B)
antidepressant medication
(C)
regular phone calls and visits to "check in"
with the doctor
(D)
psychotherapy
(E)
a neuropsychological evaluation for Alz-
heimer's disease
3.
An 80-year-old man is brought to a clinic by
his wife who complains that he has become for-
getful since he voluntarily gave up his driver's
license one month previously. Which of the fol-
lowing statements best describes this patient?
(A)
He probably has Alzheimer's disease
(B)
He is probably suffering from depression
(C)
He is at decreased risk of suicide when
compared with a younger man in the same
situation
(D)
He cannot be treated effectively with psy-
choactive drugs
(E)
He probably has a decreased intelligence
quotient (IQ)
Review Test
Directions: Each of the numbered items or incomplete statements in this section is followed by
answers or by completions of the statement. Select the one lettered answer or completion that
is best in each case.
4.
A terminally ill patient who uses a state-
ment such as, "It is the doctor's fault that I be-
came ill; she didn't do an electrocardiogram
when I came for my last office visit," is most
likely in which stage of dying, according to
Elizabeth Kübler-Ross?
(A)
Denial
(B)
Anger
(C)
Bargaining
(D)
Depression
(E)
Acceptance
5.
A physician conducts a physical examination
on an active, independent 75-year-old woman.
Which of the following findings is most likely?
(A) Increased immune responses
(B)
Increased muscle mass
(C)
Decreased size of brain ventricles
(D)
Decreased bladder control
(E)
Severs memory problems
6.
Ninety percent of the patients in a primary
care physician's practice are over 65 years of
age. When compared to the general population,
these elderly patients are more likely to show
which of the following psychological character-
istics?
(
A)
Lower likelihood of suicide
(B)
Less anxiety
(C)
Lower intelligence
(D)
Poorer sleep quality
(E)
Less depression
7.
The 78-year-old husband of a 70-year-old
woman has just died. If this woman experi-
ences normal bereavement, which of the fol-
lowing responses would be expected?
(A)
Initial loss of appetite
(B)
Feelings of worthlessness
(C)
Threats of suicide
(D)
Grief lasting 3-4 years after the death
(E)
Feelings of hopelessness
2 6
/
Behavioral Science
8.
A physician has just diagnosed a case of
terminal pancreatic cancer in a 68-year-old
man. Which of the following statements re-
garding the reactions and behavior of the
physician is the most true?
(A)
She should inform the family, but not the
patient, about the serious nature of the
illness.
(B)
Her involvement with the patient's fam-
ily should end when he dies.
(C)
She should provide strong sedation for
family members when the patient dies
until the initial shock of his death wears
off.
(D)
She will feel that she has failed when the
patient dies.
(E)
She will feel closer and closer to the pa-
tient as his death approaches.
9.
The average difference in life expectancy
between white women and African-American
men is approximately
(A)
3 years
(B)
6 years
(C)
10 years
(D)
14 years
(E)
20 years
Answers and Explanations
TBQ-A.
This 80-year-old woman is probably showing normal aging, since she can function well
living alone. Minor memory loss which does not interfere with normal functioning such as she
describes is typically seen in normally aging people. There is no evidence that this patient is suf-
fering from Alzheimer's disease, depression, or an anxiety disorder.
1-C. This patient whose wife died 8 months ago is showing a normal grief reaction. Although he
sometimes wakes up an hour earlier than usual and cries when he thinks about his wife, he is
showing efforts to return to his lifestyle by rejoining his bowling team and visiting with his fam-
ily.
The illusion of believing he sees and thus follows a woman who resembled his late wife is seen
in a normal grief reaction. For a normal grief reaction, recommending regular phone calls and
visits to "check in" with the doctor is the appropriate intervention. Sleep medication, antide-
pressants, psychotherapy, and a neuropsychological evaluation are not necessary for this patient.
2-B. This patient whose wife died 8 months ago demonstrates an abnormal grief reaction. He is
showing signs of depression (i.e., poor grooming, significant weight loss, serious sleep problems,
and no interest in interacting with friends and family) (see Chapter 12). For this patient, the
physician should recommend antidepressant medication (see Chapter 15). Psychotherapy, while
helpful, will be less useful than medication for this patient. His sleep will improve as the de-
pression improves. There is no indication that this patient needs a neuropsychological evalua-
tion for Alzheimer's disease.
3-B. Depression is commonly seen in elderly patients and memory problems are often seen in
depression. Thus, depression in the elderly may mimic Alzheimer's disease (pseudodementia).
The sudden onset of the condition with the concurrent loss of an important sign of youth and in-
dependence (the driver's license) indicate that the patient is likely to be suffering from depres-
sion rather than Alzheimer's disease. He can be treated effectively for depression with psy-
choactive drugs (i.e., antidepressants). This depressed patient is at increased risk of suicide when
compared with a younger man in the same situation.
4-B. During the anger stage of dying, the patient is likely to blame the physician.
5-D. Of the listed findings, decreased bladder control is the most likely finding in the examina-
tion of an active, independent 75-year-old woman. In aging, immune responses and muscle mass
decrease and brain ventricles increase in size. While mild memory problems may occur, severe
Chapter 3
Aging, Death, and Bereavement
/
27
memory problems do not occur in normal aging. Severe memory problems which interfere with
normal function indicate the development of a dementia like Alzheimer's disease.
6-D. Sleep disturbances, such as decreased delta or slow wave sleep (see Chapter 10), commonly
occur in the elderly. Suicide and depression are more common in the elderly than in the general
population. Anxiety may arise easily due to fears of illness and injury. Intelligence does not de-
crease with age in normal people.
7-A. Initial loss of appetite is common in normal bereavement. Feelings of worthlessness or
hopelessness, threats of suicide, and an extended period of grief characterize depression rather
than normal bereavement.
8-D. Physicians often feel that they have failed when a patient dies. Rather than becoming
closer, this physician may become emotionally detached from the patient in order to deal with
his impending death. Heavy sedation is rarely indicated as treatment for the bereaved because
it
may interfere with the grieving process. Generally, physicians inform patients when they have
a terminal illness and provide an important source of support for the family before and after the
patient's death.
9-D. The difference in life expectancy between white women (80 years) and African-American
men (66 years) is approximately 14 years. The difference in life expectancy by age and sex is cur-
rently decreasing.
Genetics, Anatomy, and
Biochemistry of Behavior
Typical Board Question
A 28-year-old male patient is brought to the emergency room after a fight in-which' he at-
tacked a man who cut into his line at the supermarket checkout. In the emergency room
he remains assaultive and combative. The body fluids of this patient are most likely to show
(A) increased 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG)
(B) decreased MHPG
(C) increased 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)
(D) decreased 5-HIAA
(E) decreased homovanillic acid (HVA)
(See "Answers and Explanations" at end of Chapter)
I.
Genetics
A. There is a genetic component to the etiology of a variety of psychiatric dis-
orders (e.g., schizophrenia, mood disorders, neuropsychiatric disorders, per-
sonality disorders, alcoholism), and personality traits.
B. Studies for examining the genetics of behavior
1.
Pedigree studies use a family tree to show the occurrence of behavior
disorders and traits within a family.
2.
Family risk studies compare how frequently a behavioral disorder or
trait occurs in the relatives of the affected individual (proband) with
how frequently it occurs in the general population.
3.
Twin studies
a. Adoption studies using monozygotic twins (who are derived from
a single fertilized ovum) or dizygotic twins (who are derived from
two fertilized ova) reared in different homes, are used to differentiate
the effects of genetic factors from environmental factors in the occur-
rence of psychiatric disorders.
29
3 0
/
Behavioral Science
II.
Neuroanatomy
b. If there is a genetic component to the etiology, a disorder may be ex-
pected to have a higher concordance rate in monozygotic twins
than in dizygotic twins (i.e., if concordant, the disorder occurs in both
twins).
-The human nervous system consists of the central nervous system (CNS)
and the peripheral nervous system (PNS).
A.
The CNS contains the brain and spinal cord.
1.
The cerebral cortex of the brain can be divided
-Anatomically into four lobes: frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital
-By arrangement of neuron layers or cryoarchitecture
-Functionally into motor, sensory, and association areas
2.
The cerebral hemispheres
a.
The hemispheres are connected by the corpus callosum, anterior
commissure,
hippocampal commissure,
and habenular
commissure.
b.
The functions of the hemispheres are lateralized.
(1) The right, or nondominant hemisphere is associated primar-
ily with perception; it also is associated with spatial relations,
body image, and musical and artistic ability.
(2) The left, or dominant, hemisphere is associated with lan-
guage function in about 96% of right-handed people and 70% of
left-handed people.
c.
Sex differences in cerebral lateralization. Women may have a
larger corpus callosum and anterior
commissure
and appear to have
better interhemispheric communication than men. Men may have bet-
ter-developed right hemispheres and appear to be better at spatial
tasks than women.
3.
Brain lesions caused by accident, disease, or surgery are associated
with particular neuropsychiatric effects (Table 4-1).
B. The PNS contains all sensory, motor, and autonomic fibers outside of the
CNS including the spinal nerves, cranial nerves, and peripheral gan-
glia.
1.
The PNS carries sensory information to the CNS, and carries motor in-
formation away from the CNS.
2.
The autonomic nervous system, which consists of sympathetic and
parasympathetic divisions, innervates the internal organs.
3.
The autonomic nervous system coordinates emotions with visceral re-
sponses such as heart rate, blood pressure, and peptic acid secretion.
4.
Visceral responses occurring as a result of psychological stress are in-
volved in the development and exacerbation of some physical illnesses
(see Chapter 22).
Chapter 4
Table 4-1. Neuropsychiatric Effects of Brain Lesions
Adapted from Fadem B,
High-Yield Behavioral Science.
Baltimore,
Williams
& Wilkins, 1996. Table 9-l, p. 32.
IIf.
Neurotransmission
Genetics, Anatomy, and Biochemistry of Behavior
/
31
A. Synapses and neurotransmitters
1. Information in the nervous system is transferred across synaptic cleft
(i.e., the space between the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron and
the dendrite of the postsynaptic neuron).
2.
When the presynaptic neuron is stimulated, a neurotransmitter is re-
leased, travels across the synaptic cleft, and acts on receptors on the post-
synaptic neuron.
-Neurotransmitters are excitatory if they increase the chances that
a neuron will fire and inhibitory if they decrease these chances.
B. Presynaptic and postsynaptic receptors are proteins present in the
membrane of the neuron that can recognize specific neurotransmitters.
Location of Lesion
Effects of Lesion on the Patient
Temporal lobes
Impaired memory; psychomotor seizures
Inability to understand language [i.e. Wernicke's aphasia
(left-side lesions)]
Limbic system
Hippocampus
Poor new learning
Implicated specifically in dementia of the
Alzheimer type
Amygdala
Changes in aggressive behavior, increased sexual behavior,
hyperorality; (Khiver-Bucy syndrome)
Decreased fear response
Problems recognizing the meaningfulness of visual cues
(visual agnosia)
Hypothalamus
Hunger leading to obesity (ventromedial nucleus damage);
loss of appetite leading to weight loss (lateral
nucleus damage)
Effects on sexual activity and body temperature regulation
Frontal lobes
Mood disorders [i.e., depression (especially left-side lesions)]
Problems with motivation, concentration, attention,
orientation, and behavior
Inability to speak fluently, [i.e., Broca's aphasia (left-side
lesions)]
Parietal lobes
Impaired processing of visual-spatial information, [i.e.,
cannot copy a simple line drawing or a clock face correctly
(right-sided lesions)]
Impaired processing of verbal information [i.e., cannot name
fingers, cannot write (left-sided lesions)]
Occipital lobes
Visual hallucinations and illusions
Inability to identify camouflaged objects
Blindness
Reticular system
Changes in sleep-wake mechanisms
Basal ganglia
Disorders of movement [i.e., Parkinson's disease (substantia
nigra), Huntington's disease (caudate and putamen) and
Tourette syndrome (caudate)]
3
2
/
Behavioral Science
'sychiatric
;ondition
)epression
Mania
s
chizophrenia
Lnxiety
)ementia of the
Alzheimer type
1.
The changeability of number or affinity of receptors for specific neuro-
transmitters (neuronal plasticity) can regulate the responsiveness of
neurons.
2.
Second messengers. When stimulated by neurotransmitters, postsyn-
aptic receptors may alter the metabolism of neurons by the use of second
messengers, which include cyclic adenosine monophosphate (CAMP),
lipids (e.g., diacylglycerol), and Cat+.
C. Classification of neurotransmitters. The biogenic amines
(
mono-
amines),
amino acids, and peptides are the three major classes of neuro-
transmitters.
D. Regulation of neurotransmitter activity
1.
The concentration of neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft is closely re-
lated to mood and behavior. A number of mechanisms affect this concen-
tration.
2.
After release by the presynaptic neuron, neurotransmitters are removed
from the synaptic cleft by:
a.
Reuptake by the presynaptic neuron
b.
Degradation by enzymes such as
monoamine
oxidase (MAO)
3.
Availability of specific neurotransmitters is associated with common psy-
chiatric conditions (Table 4-2).
[
V Biogenie Amines
A. Overview
1.
The biogenic amines, or
monoamines,
include catecholamines, in-
dolamines, ethylamines, and quaternary amines.
2.
The
monoamine
theory of mood disorder hypothesizes that lowered
monoamine
activity results in depression.
3.
Metabolites of the
monoamines
are often measured in psychiatric re-
search and diagnosis because they are more easily measured in body flu-
ids than the actual
monoamines
(Table 4-3).
B. Dopamine
1.
Dopamine, a catecholamine, is involved in the pathophysiology of schiz-
ophrenia, Parkinson disease, mood disorders, the conditioned fear
response (see Chapter 7), and the "rewarding" nature of drugs of abuse
(see Chapter 9).
'able 4-2. Psychiatric Conditions and Associated Neurotransmitter
Activity
Neurotransmitter Activity Increased (T) or Decreased (1)
Norepinephrine (1), serotonin (1), dopamine (1)
Dopamine (T)
Dopamine (T), Serotonin (T)
y-aminobutyric acid (GABA) (1), serotonin (1), norepinephrine (T)
Acetylcholine (1)
.
dapted from Fadem B:
High-Yield Behavioral Science.
Baltimore,
Williams
& Wilkins, 1996, Table 9-2, p. 32.
Chapter 4
Table 4-3. Metabolites of
Monoamines
and Associated Psychopathology
Increased (T) or Decreased (1)
Concentration of Metabolite
in Blood Plasma, Cerebrospinal
Neurotransmitter
Fluid or Urine
Dopamine
1
(T) HVA (homovanillic acid)
Norepinephrine
Serotonin
(1)
HVA
Genetics, Anatomy, and Biochemistry of Behavior
/
33
(T) VMA (vanillylmandelic acid)
(1)
MHPG
(3-methoxy-
4
-
hydroxyphenylglycol)
(1)
5-HIAA (5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid)
Associated
Psychopathology
Schizophrenia and other
conditions involving
psychosis (see Chapters 9,
11 and 12)
Parkinson's disease
Patients treated with
antipsychotic agents
Depression
Adrenal medulla tumor
(pheochromocytoma)
Severe depression and
attempted suicide
Severe depression and
attempted suicide
Aggressiveness and violence
Impulsiveness
Fire setting
Tourette syndrome
Alcohol abuse
Bulimia
Adapted from Fadem B:
High-Yield Behavioral Science.
Baltimore, Williams & Wilkins, 1996, Table 9-3,p. 33.
2.
Synthesis. The amino acid tyrosine is converted to the precursor for
dopamine by the enzyme tyrosine hydroxylase.
3.
Dopaminergic tracts
a.
The nigrostriatal tract is involved in the regulation of muscle tone
and movement.
(1) This tract degenerates in Parkinson's disease.
(2) Treatment with antipsychotic drugs, which block postsynaptic
dopamine receptors receiving input from the nigrostriatal tract,
can result in parkinsonism-like symptoms.
b.
Dopamine acts on the tuberoinfundibular tract to inhibit the se-
cretion of prolactin from the anterior pituitary.
(1) Blockade of dopamine receptors by antipsychotic drugs prevents
the inhibition of prolactin release and results in elevated pro-
lactin levels.
(2) This elevation in turn results in symptoms such as breast en-
largement, galactorrhea, and sexual dysfunction.
c.
The mesolimbic-mesocortical tract may have a role in expression
of mood since it projects into the limbic system, which is involved in
emotional behavior.
C. Norepinephrine, a catecholamine, plays a role in mood, anxiety, arousal,
learning, and memory.
1.
Synthesis
Increased (T) or Decreased (1)
Concentration of Metabolite
in Blood Plasma, Cerebrospinal
Neurotransmitter
Fluid or Urine
Dopamine
1
(T) HVA (homovanillic acid)
Norepinephrine
Serotonin
(1)
HVA
Genetics, Anatomy, and Biochemistry of Behavior
/
33
Chapter 4
Table 4-3. Metabolites of
Monoamines
and Associated Psychopathology
(T) VMA (vanillylmandelic acid)
(.l)
MHPG
(3-methoxy-
4
-
hydroxyphenylglycol)
(1)
5-HIAA (5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid)
Associated
Psychopathology
Schizophrenia and other
conditions involving
psychosis (see Chapters 9,
11 and 12)
Parkinson's disease
Patients treated with
antipsychotic agents
Depression
Adrenal medulla tumor
(pheochromocytoma)
Severe depression and
attempted suicide
Severe depression and
attempted suicide
Aggressiveness and violence
Impulsiveness
Fire setting
Tourette syndrome
Alcohol abuse
Bulimia
Adapted from Fadem B:
High-Yield Behavioral Science.
Baltimore,
Williams
& Wilkins, 1996, Table 9-3, p. 33.
2.
Synthesis. The amino acid tyrosine is converted to the precursor for
dopamine by the enzyme tyrosine hydroxylase.
3.
Dopaminergic tracts
a.
The nigrostriatal tract is involved in the regulation of muscle tone
and movement.
(1) This tract degenerates in Parkinson's disease.
(2)
Treatment with antipsychotic drugs, which block postsynaptic
dopamine receptors receiving input from the nigrostriatal tract,
can result in parkinsonism-like symptoms.
b.
Dopamine acts on the tuberoinfundibular tract to inhibit the se-
cretion of prolactin from the anterior pituitary.
(1)
Blockade of dopamine receptors by antipsychotic drugs prevents
the inhibition of prolactin release and results in elevated pro-
lactin levels.
(2) This elevation in turn results in symptoms such as breast en-
largement, galactorrhea, and sexual dysfunction.
c.
The mesolimbic-mesocortical tract may have a role in expression
of mood since it projects into the limbic system, which is involved in
emotional behavior.
C. Norepinephrine, a catecholamine, plays a role in mood, anxiety, arousal,
learning, and memory.
1.
Synthesis
34
/
Behavioral Science
a.
Like dopaminergic neurons, noradrenergic neurons synthesize do-
pamine.
b.
Dopamine [3-hydroxylase, present in noradrenergic neurons, converts
this dopamine to norepinephrine.
2.
Localization. Most noradrenergic neurons (approximately 10,000 per
hemisphere in the brain) are located in the locus ceruleus.
D. Serotonin, an indolamine, plays a role in mood, sleep, sexuality, and im-
pulse control; elevation of serotonin is associated with improved mood
and sleep but decreased sexual function (particularly delayed orgasm).
Decreased serotonin is associated with poor impulse control, depression,
and poor sleep.
1.
Synthesis. The amino acid tryptophan is converted to serotonin [also
known as 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT)] by the enzyme tryptophan hy-
droxylase as well as by an amino acid decarboxylase.
2.
Localization. Most serotonergic cell bodies in the brain are contained in
the dorsal raphe nucleus.
3.
Antidepressants and serotonin
-Heterocyclic antidepressants, selective serotonin reuptake in-
hibitors, and MAO inhibitors ultimately increase the presence of sero-
tonin and norepinephrine in the synaptic cleft.
a.
Heterocyclics block reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, and
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors such as fluoxetine [Prozac]
selectively block reuptake of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron.
b.
MAO inhibitors prevent the degradation of serotonin and norep-
inephrine by MAO.
E. Histamine
1.
Histamine, an ethylamine, is affected by psychoactive drugs.
2.
Histamine receptor blockade with drugs such as antipsychotics and tri-
cyclic antidepressants is associated with common side effects of these
drugs such as sedation and increased appetite leading to weight gain.
F.
Acetylcholine (ACh), a quaternary amine, is the transmitter used by
nerve-skeleton-muscle junctions.
1.
Degeneration of cholinergic neurons is associated with dementia
of the Alzheimer type, Down syndrome, and movement and sleep
disorders.
2.
Cholinergic neurons synthesize ACh from acetyl coenzyme A and
choline
using
choline
acetyltransferase.
3.
Acetylcholinesterase (ACNE) breaks ACh down into
choline
and acetate.
4.
Blocking the action of AChE with drugs such as tacrine [Cognex] and
donepezil [Aricept] can delay the progression of dementia of the Alzheimer
type but cannot reverse lost function.
5.
Blockade of muscarinic Ach receptors with drugs such as antipsy-
chotics and tricyclic antidepressants results in the classic "anticholiner-
gic" adverse effects seen with use of these drugs, including dry mouth,
blurred vision, urinary hesitancy, and constipation.
Chapter 4
Genetics, Anatomy, and Biochemistry of Behav
ior
/
35
V Amino Acid Neurotransmitters
-These neurotransmitters are involved in most synapses in the brain, and in-
clude y-aminobutyric acid (GABA),
glycine,
and glutamate.
A.
GABA
1.
GABA is the principal inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS.
2.
GABA is closely involved in the action of the antianxiety agents, benzo-
diazepines (e.g., diazepam [Valium]) and barbiturates (e.g., secobarbital
[Seconal]).
-Benzodiazepines and barbiturates increase the affinity of GABA for
its binding site, allowing more chloride to enter the neuron. The chlo-
ride-laden neurons become hyperpolarized and inhibited, decreasing
neuronal firing and ultimately decreasing anxiety.
B.
Glycine
is an inhibitory neurotransmitter which works on its own and as a
regulator of glutamate activity.
C. Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter and may be associated with
epilepsy, schizophrenia, neurodegenerative illnesses and mecha-
nisms of cell death.
VI.
Neuropeptides
A. Endogenous opioids
1.
Enkephalins and endorphins are opioids produced by the brain itself
that decrease pain and anxiety and have a role in addiction and mood.
2.
Placebo effects (see also Chapter 25) may be mediated by the endoge-
nous opioid system. Prior treatment with an opiate receptor blocker such
as naloxone may block the placebo effect.
B. Other neuropeptides have been implicated in the following conditions.
1.
Schizophrenia [cholecystokinin (CCK) and neurotensin]
2.
Mood disorders [somatostatin, substance P, vasopressin, oxytocin, and
vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)]
3.
Huntington disease (somatostatin and substance P)
4.
Dementia of the Alzheimer type (somatostatin and VIP)
5.
Anxiety disorders and substance P (CCK)
6.
Pain and aggression (substance P)
1.
Analysis of the blood plasma of a 45-year-old
male patient shows an increased level of ho-
movanillic acid (HVA). This patient is most
likely to show which of the following conditions?
(A)
Parkinson's disease
(B)
Depression
(C)
Bulimia
(D)
Pheochromocytoma
(E)
Schizophrenia
2.
A very anxious patient is examined in the
emergency room. If it could be measured, the
y-aminobutyric acid (GABA) activity in the
brain of this patient would most likely be
(A) increased
(B)
decreased
(C) - unchanged
(D)
higher than the activity of serotonin
(E)
higher than the activity of norepinephrine
3. In a clinical experiment, a 48-year-old female
patient with chronic pain who, in the past, has
responded to placebos is given naloxone.
Shortly thereafter the patient is given an inert
substance which she believes is a painkiller. Af-
ter the patient receives the inert substance, her
pain is most likely to
(A) increase
(B)
decrease
(C)
be unchanged
(D) respond to lower doses of opiates than pre-
viously
(E)
fail to respond to opiates in the future
4.
Which of the following neuropeptides is most
closely implicated in the psychopathology of
pain?
(A)
Cholecystokinin
(B)
Vasopressin
(C)
Substance P
(D)
Somatostatin
(E)
Vasoactive intestinal peptide
3 6
Review Test
Directions: Each of the numbered items or incomplete statements in this section is followed by
answers or by completions of the statement. Select the one lettered answer or completion that
is best in each case.
5.
A 65-year-old female patient has had a
stroke affecting the left hemisphere of her
brain. Which of the following functions is most
likely to be affected by the stroke?
(A)
Perception
(B)
Musical ability
(C)
Spatial relations
(D)
Language
(E)
Artistic ability
6.
Which of the following structures connects
the two cerebral hemispheres?
(A)
The basal ganglia
(B)
The anterior
commissure
(C)
The reticular system
(D)
The hippocampus
(E)
The amygdala
7.
A 23-year-old patient shows side effects
such as sedation, increased appetite, and
weight gain while being treated with antipsy-
chotic medication. Of the following, the mech-
anism most closely associatea with these ef-
fects is
(A)
blockade of serotonin receptors
(B)
blockade of dopamine receptors
(C)
blockade of norepinephrine receptors
(D) blockade of histamine receptors
(E)
decreased availability of serotonin
8.
The autopsy of a 65-year-old man shows de-
generation of cholinergic neurons in the hip-
pocampus. In life, this man is most likely to
have suffered from
(A)
mania
(B)
depression
(C)
dementia of the Alzheimer type
(D)
anxiety
(E)
schizophrenia
8.
The major neurotransmitter implicated in
dementia of the Alzheimer type is
(
A) serotonin
(B)
norepinephrine
(C)
dopamine
(D)
y-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
(E)
acetylcholine (ACh)
Chapter 4
10.
The major neurotransmitter involved in
the action of fluoxetine [Prozac] is
(A)
serotonin
(B)
norepinephrine
(C)
dopamine
(D)
y-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
(E)
acetylcholine (ACh)
11.
The neurotransmitter
metabolized to
MHPG (3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol) is
(A)
serotonin
(B)
norepinephrine
(C)
dopamine
(D)
y-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
(E)
acetylcholine (ACh)
12.
The neurotransmitter metabolized to 5-
HIAA (5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid) is
13.
A 25-year-old male patient sustains a se-
rious head injury in an automobile accident.
He had been aggressive and assaultive, but af-
ter the accident he is placid and cooperative.
He also makes inappropriate suggestive com-
ments to the nurses and masturbates a great
deal. The area of the brain most likely to be af-
fected in this patient is the
14.
A 35-year-old female patient reports that
she has difficulty sleeping ever since she sus-
tained a concussion in a subway accident. The
area of the brain most likely to be affected in
this patient is the
(A)
right parietal lobe
(B)
basal ganglia
(C)
hippocampus
(D) reticular system
(E)
amygdala
(F)
left frontal lobe
Genetics, Anatomy, and Biochemistry
of
Behavior
/
37
15.
When he attempts to reproduce a clock
face drawn by the doctor, a 70-year-old man
who has had a stroke crowds all twelve num-
bers into the one o'clock to six o'clock position,
leaving the left side of the clock face blank.
The area of the brain most likely to be affected
in this patient is the
(A)
right parietal lobe
(B)
basal ganglia
(C)
hippocampus
(D) reticular system
(E)
amygdala
(F)
left frontal lobe
16.
An 80-year-old female patient has a
tremor, difficulty walking, and problems initi-
ating movement. The area of the brain most
likely to be affected in this patient is the
17.
A 69-year-old former bank president can-
not tell you the name of the current president
and has difficulty identifying the woman sit-
ting next to him (his wife). He began having
memory problems 3 years ago. The area of the
brain most likely to be affected in this patient
is the
18.
A 45-year-old male patient becomes de-
pressed following a head injury. The area of
the brain most likely to be affected in this pa-
tient is the
(A)
right parietal lobe
(B)
basal ganglia
(C)
hippocampus
(D) reticular system
(E)
amygdala
(F)
left frontal lobe
(A)
right parietal lobe
(A)
right parietal lobe
(B)
basal ganglia
(B)
basal ganglia
(C)
hippocampus
(C)
hippocampus
(D)
reticular system
(D)
reticular system
(E)
amygdala
(E)
amygdala
(F)
left frontal lobe
(F)
left frontal lobe
(A)
serotonin
(A)
right parietal lobe
(B)
norepinephrine
(B)
basal ganglia
(C)
dopamine
(C)
hippocampus
(D)
y-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
(D)
(E)
reticular system
amygdala
(E)
acetylcholine (ACh)
(F)
left frontal lobe
Answers and Explanations
TBQ-D.
Assaultive, impulsive, aggressive behavior like that seen in this 28-year-old male pa-
tient is associated with decreased levels of serotonin in the brain. Levels of 5-HIAA (5-hydroxy-
indoleacetic acid), the major metabolite of serotonin, have been shown to be decreased in the body
fluids of violent, aggressive, impulsive individuals as well as depressed individuals. MHPG
(3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol), a metabolite of norepinephrine, is decreased in severe de-
pression while homovanillic acid (HVA), a metabolite of dopamine, is decreased in Parkinson's
disease and depression.
1-E. Increased body fluid level of homovanillic acid (HVA), a major metabolite of dopamine, is
seen in schizophrenia. Decreased HVA is seen in Parkinson's disease, depression and in med-
icated schizophrenic patients. Increased vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), a metabolite of norepi-
nephrine is seen in pheochromocytoma. Decreased body fluid level of 5-HIAA, a metabolite of
serotonin, is seen in depression and in bulimia (see also answer to TBQ).
2-B. y-Aminobutyric acid (GABA) is an inhibitory amino acid neurotransmitter in the CNS.
Thus, the activity of GABA in the brain of this anxious patient is likely to be decreased. Other
neurotransmitters are also involved in anxiety (see Table 4-2) There is no reason to believe that
GABA activity is higher than the activity of serotonin or norepinephrine in this patient.
3-C. After receiving naloxone, a chronic pain patient receives placebo medication (a dose of an
inert substance identified as a painkiller). Since the placebo response is based in part on activa-
tion of the endogenous opioid system, it will be blocked by naloxone, a substance which blocks
descending pain inhibitory pathways, and her pain will be unchanged. This experiment will not
necessarily affect her response to opiates in the future.
4-C. Substance P has been implicated in pain disorders. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is implicated in
schizophrenia and anxiety disorders, vasopressin, somatostatin, and vasoactive intestinal pep-
tide have been implicated in mood disorders. Somatostatin has been implicated also in Hunt-
ington's disease and dementia of the Alzheimer type.
5-D. Dominance for language in both right-handed and left-handed people is usually in the left
hemisphere of the brain. Perception, musical ability, artistic ability, and spatial relations are
functions of the right side of the brain.
6-B. The corpus callosum and the anterior and hippocampel
commissures
connect the two hemi-
spheres of the brain. The basal ganglia, reticular system,
hippocampes,
and amygdala do not
have this function.
7-D. Sedation, increased appetite, and weight gain are side effects of treatment with certain an-
tipsychotic agents. The mechanism most closely associated with these side effects is blockade of
histamine receptors since these antipsychotics are not specific for dopamine blockade. Blockade
of dopamine receptors by these antipsychotic medications is associated with side effects such as
parkinsonism-like symptoms and elevated prolactin levels.
8-C. Degeneration of cholinergic neurons in the brain is seen in dementia of the Alzheimer type,
movement disorders, and Down syndrome.
9-E. Acetylcholine (ACh) is the major neurotransmitter implicated in dementia of the Alzheimer
type.
10-A. Blockade of serotonin reuptake by presynaptic neurons is the primary action of the anti-
depressant fluoxetine.
11-B. Norepinephrine is metabolized to MHPG.
38
Chapter 4
Genetics, Anatomy, and Biochemistry of Behavior
/
39
12-A. Serotonin is metabolized to 5-HIAA.
13-E. The patient is suffering from Kldver-Bucy syndrome, which includes hypersexuality and
docility and is associated with damage to the amygdala.
14-D. Sleep-arousal mechanisms are affected by damage to the reticular system.
15-A. Damage to the right parietal lobe can result in impaired visual-spatial processing which
can lead to problems copying simple drawings and left side neglect.
16-B. This patient is showing signs of Parkinson's disease which is associated with abnormali-
ties of the basal ganglia.
17-C. This patient is probably suffering from dementia of the Alzheimer type. Of the listed brain
areas the major one implicated in dementia of the Alzheimer type is the hippocampus.
18-F. Of the listed brain areas, depression is most likely to be associated with damage to the left
frontal lobe.
Biological Assessment
of Patients with
Psychiatric Symptoms
A physician administers sodium lactate intravenously to a 28-year-old woman. Using this
technique, the physician is trying to provoke and thus identify
(A) conversion disorder
(B) amnestic disorder
(C)
malingering
(D) panic
disorder
(E)
major
depression
(See
"Answers
and
Explanations" at end of Chapter)
I.
Overview
-Biological alterations and abnormalities can underlie psychiatric symptoms
and influence their occurrence. A variety of studies are used clinically to identify
such alterations and abnormalities in patients.
Il.
Measurement of Biogenic Amines and Psychotropic Drugs
A. Altered levels of Biogenic amines and their metabolites occur in some psy-
chiatric conditions (see Tables 4-2 and 4-3).
B. Plasma levels of some antipsychotic and antidepressant agents are mea-
sured to evaluate patient compliance or to determine whether thera-
peutic blood levels of the agent have been reached.
C. Laboratory tests are also used to monitor patients for complications of phar-
macotherapy.
1.
Patients taking the antimanic agent carbamazepine [Tegretol] or the an-
tipsychotic agent clozapine [Clozaril] must be observed for blood abnor-
malities such as agranulocytosis.
2.
Liver function tests are used in patients being treated with carba-
mazepine and valproic acid (an antimanic agent).
41
42
/
Behauioral Science
3.
Thyroid function tests and renal panel should be used in patients who are
being treated with the antimanic agent lithium.
a.
Patients taking lithium can develop hypothyroidism and, occasion-
ally, hyperthyroidism.
b. Lithium levels also should be monitored regularly because of the
drug's narrow therapeutic range.
III.
Dexamethasone Suppression Test (DST)
A. In a normal patient with a normal hypothalamic-adrenal-pituitary axis, dexa-
methasone, a synthetic glucocorticoid, suppresses the secretion of corti-
sol. In contrast, approximately one half of patients with major depressive
disorder have a positive DST (i.e., this suppression is limited or ab-
sent).
B. There is some evidence that patients with a positive DST (indicating re-
duced suppression of cortisol) will respond well to treatment with antide-
pressant agents or to electroconvulsive therapy (see Chapter 16).
C. The DST has limited clinical usefulness. Positive findings are not specific;
nonsuppression is seen in conditions other than major depressive disorder.
These disorders include: schizophrenia, dementia, pregnancy, anorexia
nervosa, or severe weight loss and endocrine disorders. Nonsuppression is
also seen with use, abuse, and withdrawal of alcohol and antianxiety agents.
IV Tests of Endocrine Function
A. Thyroid function tests are used to screen for hypothyroidism and hy-
perthyroidism, which can mimic depression and anxiety, respectively.
B. Patients with depression may have other endocrine irregularities such
as reduced response to a challenge with thyrotropin-releasing hormone, and
abnormalities in growth hormone, melatonin, and gonadotropin.
C. Reduced levels of gonadotropins are seen also in schizophrenia.
D. Psychiatric symptoms are associated with endocrine disorders such as Ad-
dison's disease and Cushing's disease.
V Neuroimaging and Electroencephalogram (EEG) Studies
-Structural brain abnormalities and EEG changes may correspond to specific
psychiatric disorders (Table 5-1).
VI.
Neuropsychological Tests
A. Neuropsychological tests are designed to assess general intelligence, mem-
ory, reasoning, orientation, perceptuomotor performance, language function,
attention, and concentration in patients with suspected neurologic problems,
such as dementia and brain damage.
B. Specific neuropsychological tests are described in Table 5-2.
VII. Other Tests
A. Amobarbital sodium [Amytal] interview
1. Intravenous (IV) administration of amobarbital sodium ("the Amytal in-
terview") may be useful in determining whether organic pathology is re-
Chapter 5
Table 5-1. Neuroimaging and Electroencephalography in the Biological Evaluation of the
Psychiatric Patient
Specific test or measure
Table 5-2. Neuropsychological Diagnostic Tests Used in Psychiatry
Test
Uses and Characteristics
Halstead-Reitan battery
Luria-Nebraska neuro-
psychological battery
Bender Visual Motor
Gestalt 'lest
Biological Assessment of Patients with Psychiatric Symptoms
/
43
Uses and Characteristics
Used to detect and localize brain lesions and determine their
effects.
Used to determine left or right cerebral dominance
Used to identify specific types of brain dysfunction, such as
dyslexia
Used to evaluate visual and motor ability through the
reproduction of designs
sponsible for symptomatology in patients who exhibit malingering, dis-
sociative disorder, or conversion disorder (see Chapter 14).
2.
Amobarbital sodium can relax patients with these disorders or other
disorders involving high levels of anxiety and mute psychotic states
(see Chapter 11), so that they can express themselves coherently during
an interview.
B. Sodium lactate administration. IV administration of sodium lactate can
provoke a panic attack (see Chapter 13) in susceptible patients and
can thus help to identify individuals with panic disorder. Inhalation of car-
bon dioxide can produce the same effect.
C. Galvanic skin response ("lie detector" test)
1.
The electric resistance of skin (galvanic skin response) varies with the
patient's psychological state.
2.
Higher sweat gland activity, seen with sympathetic nervous system
arousal (e.g., when lying), results in decreased skin resistance.
Computed
Identifies anatomically based brain changes (e.g., enlarged
tomography (CT)
brain ventricles) in cognitive disorders such as dementia
of the Alzheimer type as well as in schizophrenia
Nuclear magnetic
Identifies demyelinating disease (e.g., multiple sclerosis).
resonance imaging
Shows the biochemical condition of neural tissues as well as
(
NMRI)
the anatomy without exposing the patient to ionizing radiation
Positron emission tomo-
Localizes areas of the brain that are physiologically
graphy (PET) or
active during specific tasks by characterizing and
functional MRI (fMRI)
measuring metabolism of glucose in neural tissue
Electroencephalogram
Measures electrical activity in the cortex
(EEG)
Is useful in diagnosing epilepsy and in differentiating delirium
(abnormal EEG) from dementia (often normal EEG)
Shows, in schizophrenic patients, decreased alpha waves,
increased theta and delta waves, and epileptiform activity
Evoked EEG (evoked
Measures electrical activity in the cortex in response to
potentials)
tactile, auditory, sound, or visual stimulation
Is used to evaluate vision and hearing loss in infants and brain
responses in comatose and suspected brain dead patients
Directions: Each of the numbered items or incomplete statements in this section is followed by
answers or by completions of the statement. Select the one lettered answer or completion that
is best in each case.
1.
A 40-year-old woman reports that she has
no appetite, sleeps poorly, and has lost interest
in her normal activities. Which of the following
is the most likely laboratory finding in this
woman?
(A)
Positive dexamethasone suppression test
(DST)
(B)
Normal growth hormone regulation
(C)
Increased response to a challenge with
thyrotropin-releasing hormone
(D)
Normal melatonin levels
(E)
Hyperthyroidism
2.
A 34-year-old female patient develops
agranulocytosis. This patient is most likely to
be taking which of the following agents?
(A)
Amobarbital sodium
(B)
Clozapine
(C)
Lithium
(D)
Dexamethasone
(E)
Sodium lactate
3.
A 37-year-old male patient who has had a
stroke cannot copy a design drawn by the ex-
aminer. The test that the examiner is most
likely to be using to evaluate this patient is the
4.
To determine which brain area is physiolog-
ically active when a 44-year-old male patient is
translating a paragraph from Spanish to En-
glish, the most appropriate diagnostic tech-
nique is
(A)
positron emission tomography (PET)
(B)
computed tomography (CT)
(C)
amobarbital sodium [Amytal] interview
(D) electroencephalogram (EEG)
(E)
evoked EEG
Review Test
5.
To determine whether a 3-month-old infant
is able to hear sounds, the most appropriate di-
agnostic technique is
(A)
positron emission tomography (PET)
(B) computed tomography (CT)
(C)
amobarbital sodium [Amytal] interview
(D) electroencephalogram (EEG)
(E)
evoked EEG
6.
A27-year-old female patient shows a sudden
loss of sensory function below the waist which
cannot be medically explained. To determine
whether psychological factors are responsible,
the most appropriate diagnostic technique is
(A)
positron emission tomography (PET)
(B)
computed tomography (CT)
(C)
amobarbital sodium [Amytal] interview
(D) electroencephalogram (EEG)
(E)
evoked EEG
7.
To identify anatomical changes in the brain
of an 80-year-old female patient with dementia
of the Alzheimer type, the most appropriate di-
agnostic technique is
(A)
positron emission tomography (PET)
(B)
computed tomography (CT)
(
A) positron emission tomography (PET)
(B)
computed tomography (CT)
(C)
amobarbital sodium [Amytal] interview
(D)
electroencephalogram (EEG)
(E)
evoked EEG
(
A)
Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test
(C)
amobarbital sodium [Amytal] interview
(B)
Luria-Nebraska neuropsychological bat-
(D) electroencephalogram (EEG)
tery
(E)
evoked EEG
(C)
Halstead-Reitan battery
(D)
dexamethasone suppression test
8.
To differentiate delirium from dementia in a
(E)
electroencephalogram (EEG)
75-year-old male patient, the most appropriate
diagnostic technique is
Answers and Explanations
TBQ-D. Intravenous administration of sodium lactate can help identify individuals with panic
disorder since it can provoke a panic attack in such patients. Amobarbital sodium interviews may
be useful in determining whether organic pathology is responsible for symptomatology in pa-
tients who exhibit malingering, amnestic, or conversion disorder (see Chapter 14). The dexa-
methasone suppression test can help in identifying major depression.
1-A. Poor appetite, poor sleep, and lack of interest in normal activities characterize patients suf-
fering from major depression (see Chapter 12). In this depressed woman, the dexamethasone
suppression test is likely to be positive. A positive result is seen when the synthetic glucocorti-
coid dexamethasone fails to suppress the secretion of cortisol as it would in a normal patient.
Also, in depression there may be abnormal growth hormone regulation and melatonin levels and
reduced response to a challenge with thyrotropin-releasing hormone. Hypothyroidism not un-
commonly results in depression; hyperthyroidism is more commonl;'
,
associated with the symp-
toms of anxiety.
2-B. Agranulocytosis (a disorder of the blood) is seen particularly in patients taking clozapine,
an antipsychotic, or carbamazepine, an anticonvulsant which is used to treat bipolar disorder
(see Chapter 12). Lithium, amobarbital sodium, dexamethasone, and sodium lactate are not
specifically associated with agranulocytosis.
3-A. The Bender Visual Motor Gest.- It Test is used to evaluate visual and motor ability by re-
production of designs. The Luria-Nebraska neuropsychological battery is used to determine cere-
bral dominance and to identify specific types of brain dysfunction, while the Halstead-Reitan bat-
tery is used to detect and localize brain lesions and determine their effects. The dexamethasone
suppression test is used to predict which depressed patients will respond well to treatment with
antidepressant agents or to electroconvulsive therapy. The electroencephalogram (EEG), which
measures electrical activity in the cortex, is useful in diagnosing epilepsy and in differentiating
delirium from dementia.
4-A. Positron emission tomography (PET) localizes physiologically active brain areas by mea-
suring glucose metabolism. Thus, this test can be used to determine which brain area is being
used during a specific task (e.g., translating a passage written in Spanish).
5-E. The auditory evoked EEG can be used to assess whether this child can hear. Evoked EEGs
measure electrical activity in the cortex in response to sensory stimulation.
6-C. The sodium amobarbital (Amytal) interview is used to determine whether psychological fac-
tors are responsible for symptoms in this patient who shows a non-medically explained loss of
sensory function (conversion disorder-see Chapter 14).
7-B. Computed tomography (CT) identifies organically based brain changes such as enlarged
ventricles. Thus, although not diagnostic, this test can be used to identify anatomical changes in
the brain such as enlarged ventricles of a patient with suspected dementia of the Alzheimer type.
8-D. Electroencephalogram (EEG) measures electrical activity in the cortex and can be useful
in differentiating delirium (abnormal EEG) from dementia (usually normal EEG).
Psychoanalytic Theory
A doctor becomes very
angry
with a patient when the patient does not take his medication.
The patient reminds the doctor o£ her rebellious son. This doctor's intense reaction to the
patient's behavior is most likely to be
result of
(A)
positive transference
(B)
negative transference
(C) countertransference
(D) dislike of the patient
(E) anger at the patient
(See "Answers and Explanations" at end of Chapter)
I.
Overview
-Psychoanalytic theory is based on Freud's concept that behavior is determined
by forces derived from unconscious mental processes. Psychoanalysis and
related therapies are psychotherapeutic treatments based on this concept (see
Chapter 17).
II.
Freud's Theories of the Mind
--To explain his ideas, Freud developed, early in his career, the topographic the-
ory of the mind and, later in his career, the structural theory.
A. Topographic theory of the mind. In the topographic theory, the mind
contains three levels: the unconscious, preconscious, and conscious.
1.
The unconscious mind contains repressed thoughts and feelings which
are not available to the conscious mind, and uses primary process think-
ing.
a.
Primary process is a type of thinking associated with primitive
drives, wish fulfillment, and pleasure seeking and has no logic or con-
cept of time. Primary process thinking is seen in young children and
psychotic adults.
b.
Dreams represent gratification of unconscious instinctive impulses
and wish fulfillment.
47
48
/
Behavioral Science
2.
The preconscious mind contains memories that, while not immedi-
ately available, can be accessed easily.
3.
The conscious mind contains thoughts that a person is currently aware
of. It operates in close conjunction with the preconscious mind but does
not have access to the unconscious mind. The conscious mind uses sec-
ondary process thinking (logical, mature, time-oriented) and can delay
gratification.
B. Structural theory of the mind. In the structural theory, the mind con-
tains three parts: the id, the ego, and the superego (Table 6-1).
II.
Defense Mechanisms
A. Definition. Defense mechanisms are unconscious mental techniques
used by the ego to keep conflicts out of the conscious mind, thus decreasing
anxiety and maintaining a person's sense of safety, equilibrium, and self-
esteem.
B. Specific defense mechanisms (Table 6-2)
1.
Many defense mechanisms are immature (i.e., they are manifestations
of childlike or disturbed behavior).
2.
Mature defense mechanisms (e.g., altruism, humor, sublimation, and
suppression) when used in moderation, directly help the patient or others.
3.
Repression, pushing unacceptable emotions into the unconscious, is the
basic defense mechanism on which all others are based.
Table 6-1.
Freud's Structural Theory of the Mind
Structural
Topographic
Age at which
component level of operation it develops
Id
Unconscious
Present at birth
Ego
Unconscious,
Begins to develop
preconscious
i
mmediately
and conscious
after birth
Superego
Unconscious,
Developed by
preconscious
about 6 years
and conscious
of age
Characteristics
Contains instinctive sexual and
aggressive drives
Controlled by primary process
thinking
Not influenced by external reality
Controls the expression of the id to
adapt to the requirements of the
external world primarily by the use
of defense mechanisms
Enables one to sustain satisfying
interpersonal relationships
Through reality testing (i.e.,
constantly evaluating what is valid
and then adapting that to reality),
enables one to maintain a sense
of reality about the body and the
external world
Associated with moral values and
conscience
Controls the expression of the id
Chapter 6
Table 6-2. Commonly Used Defense Mechanisms (listed alphabetically)
Defense
mechanism
Acting out
Identification
(Identification
with the Aggressor)
Intellectualization
Isolation of affect
Explanation
Avoiding personally unacceptable
emotions by behaving in an
attention-getting, often socially
inappropriate manner
Assisting others to avoid negative
personal feelings (a relatively
"mature" defense mechanism)
Not believing aspects of reality
that the person finds unbearable
Moving emotions from a personally
intolerable situation to one that
is personally tolerable
Mentally separating part of one's
consciousness from real life events
or mentally distancing oneself
from others
Unconsciously patterning
one's behavior after that of
someone more powerful (can
be either positive or negative)
Using the mind's higher functions
to avoid experiencing emotion
Failing to experience the feelings
associated with a stressful life
event, although logically
understanding the significance
of the event
Attributing one's own personally
unacceptable feelings to others
Associated with paranoid
symptoms and prejudice
Distorting one's perception of an
event so that its negative
outcome seems reasonable
Adopting opposite attitudes to
avoid personally unacceptable
emotions; i.e. unconscious hypocrisy
Psychoanalytic Theory
/
49
Example
A depressed 14-year-old girl
with no history of conduct
disorder has sexual encoun-
ters with multiple partners
after her parents divorce
A man with a poor self-
i
mage, who is a social
worker during the week,
donates every other
weekend to charity work
An alcoholic insists that he is
only a social drinker
A surgeon attending with
unacknowledged anger
toward his mother is
abrasive to the female
residents on his service
A teenager has no memory of
a car accident in which he
was driving and his
girlfriend was killed
Expressing personally uncomfortable
A man who is uncomfortable
feelings without causing emotional
discomfort (a relatively
"mature" defense mechanism)
about his erectile problems
makes jokes about Viagra
(Sildenafil)
A man who was terrorized by
his gym teacher as a child,
becomes a punitive, critical
gym teacher
A sailor whose boat is about
to sink calmly explains the
technical aspects of the
hull damage in great detail
to the other crew members
Without showing any emotion,
a woman tells her family
the results of tests which
indicate that her lung
cancer has metastasized
A man with unconscious
homosexual impulses
begins to believe that his
boss is homosexual
A man who loses an arm in
an accident says the loss of
his arm was good because
it kept him from getting in
trouble with the law
A woman who unconsciously is
resentful of the responsibil-
ities of child rearing, over-
continued
Altruism
Denial
Displacement
Dissociation
Humor
Projection
Rationalization
Reaction formation
JO
/
Behavioral Science
Table 6-2. Commonly Used Defense Mechanisms (listed alphabetically)
Defense
mechanism
Regression
Splitting
Sublimation
Suppression
Undoing
Adapted from Fadem B, Simrey S:
High Yield Psychiatry.
Baltimore,
Williams
and Wilkins, 1998, p. 134.
Explanation
Transference Reactions
Reverting to behavior patterns like
those seen in someone of a
younger age
Categorizing people or situations
into categories of either "fabulous"
or "dreadful" because of
intolerance of uncertainty
Seen in patients with borderline
personality disorder
Expressing a personally
unacceptable feeling (e.g., rage)
in a socially acceptable way (a
relatively "mature" defense
mechanism)
Deliberately pushing personally
unacceptable emotions out of
conscious awareness (the only
defense mechanism that includes
some aspect of consciousness)
Believing that one can magically
reverse past events caused by
"incorrect" behavior by now
adopting "correct" behavior
Example
spends on expensive gifts
and clothing for her children
A 5-year-old child who was
previously toilet-trained
begins to wet the bed
when his mother has a new
baby
A patient tells the doctor that
while all of the doctors in
the group practice are
wonderful, all of the nurses
and office help are
unfriendly and curt
A man who got into fights as
a teenager, becomes a
professional prize fighter
A medical student taking a
review course for the
USMLE, mentally changes
the subject when her mind
wanders to the exam
during a lecture
A woman who is terminally
ill
with AIDS caused by
drug abuse, stops using
drugs and alcohol and
starts an exercise and
healthful diet program
A. Definition
-Transference and countertransference are unconscious mental atti-
tudes based on important past personal relationships. These phenomena
increase emotionality and may thus alter judgment and behavior in pa-
tients' relationships with their doctors (transference) and doctors' rela-
tionships with their patients (countertransference).
B. Transference
1. In positive transference, the patient has confidence in the doctor. If in-
tense, the patient may over-idealize the doctor or develop sexual feelings
toward the doctor.
2. In negative transference, the patient may become resentful or angry
toward the doctor if the patient's desires and expectations are not real-
ized. This may lead to noncompliance with medical advice.
C. In countertransference, feelings about a patient who reminds the doctor
of a close friend or relative can interfere with the doctor's medical judgment.
(A)
produce conflict in the conscious mind
(B)
are conscious mental techniques
(C) increase anxiety
(D)
are examples of the use of defense mecha-
nisms
(E)
decrease patients' sense of self-esteem
2.
Which of the following structures of the
mind work on an unconscious level?
3.
Which of the following structures of the mind
are developed in a normal 7-year-old child?
(A)
The id only
(B)
The id and the ego only
(C)
The id, ego, and superego
(D)
The ego and superego only
(E)
Neither the id, ego, nor superego
4.
A 34-year-old woman relates that she wakes
up fully dressed at least twice a week but then
is tired all day. She also frequently receives
phone calls from men who say they met her in
a bar but whom she does not remember meet-
ing. The defense mechanism that this woman
is using is
(A)
denial
(B)
sublimation
(C)
dissociation
(D) regression
(E) intellectualization
5.
A 35-year-old woman scheduled for surgery
the next day insists that her mother stay
overnight in the hospital with her. The defense
mechanism that this patient is using is
(A)
denial
(B) sublimation
(C)
dissociation
(D) regression
(E) intellectualization
Review Test
Directions:
Each of the numbered items or incomplete statements in this section is followed by
answers or by completions of the statement. Select the one lettered answer or completion that
is best in each case.
1.
A primary care physician notices that many
6.
Which of the following defense mechanisms
of her patients use statements like "I can't stop
is classified as the most mature?
smoking because I'll gain weight," or "when I'm
sick, I only want to eat junk food." Statements
like these
(A)
Denial
(B)
Sublimation
(C)
Dissociation
(D)
Regression
(E) Intellectualization
7.
A patient whose father was often late for im-
portant family events storms out of the office
when told that the doctor will be late because
of an emergency. This patient's behavior is
most likely to be a result of
positive transference
negative transference
countertransference
dislike of the doctor
anger at the doctor
8.
When having a manic episode, a 53-year-old
patient with bipolar disorder shows primary
process thinking. This type of thinking
(A)
is logical
(B)
is closely attuned to time
(C)
is associated with reality
(D) is accessible to the conscious mind
(E)
is associated with pleasure seeking
9.
About 1 week after her final examination for
a biochemistry course, a medical student's
knowledge of the details of the Krebs cycle is
most likely to reside in her
(A)
unconscious mind
(B)
preconscious mind
(C)
conscious mind
(D) superego
(E)
ego
10.
A 15-year-old steals from family members
and friends. When no one is watching, he also
tortures the family cat. Which aspect of the
mind is deficient in this teenager?
(A)
The unconscious mind
(B)
The preconscious mind
(C)
The conscious mind
(D)
The superego
(E)
The ego
51
(A)
(A)
The id only
(B)
(B)
The id and the ego only
(C)
(C)
The id, ego, and superego
(D)
(D)
The ego and superego only
(E)
(E)
Neither the id, ego, nor superego
52
/
Behavioral Science
11.
A man who has unacknowledged anger to-
ward his wife kicks his dog. The defense mech-
anism that this man is using is
(A)
Regression
(B)
Acting out
(C)
Denial
(D)
Splitting
(E)
Projection
(F)
Dissociation
(
G)
Reaction formation
(H) Intellectualization
(I)
Sublimation
(J)
Displacement
12.
A person who has unconscious violent feel-
ings becomes a surgeon. The defense mecha-
nism that this person is using is
(A)
Regression
(B)
Acting out
(C)
Denial
(D)
Splitting
(E)
Projection
(F)
Dissociation
(G)
Reaction formation
(H) Intellectualization
(I)
Sublimation
(J)
Displacement
13.
A husband who is unconsciously attracted
to another woman accuses his wife of cheat-
ing. The defense mechanism that this man is
using is
(A)
Regression
(B)
Acting out
(C)
Denial
(
D) Splitting
(E)
Projection
(F)
Dissociation
(G)
Reaction formation
(H) Intellectualization
(I)
Sublimation
(J)
Displacement
14.
A man who is unconsciously afraid of fly-
ing states his love of airplanes. The defense
mechanism that this man is using is
((A)
Regression
(B)
Acting out
(C)
Denial
(D)
Splitting
(E)
Projection
(F)
Dissociation
(G)
Reaction formation
(H) Intellectualization
(I)
Sublimation
(J)
Displacement
Answers and Explanations
TBQ-C. The doctor who becomes very angry at her patient for not taking his medication is show-
ing a countertransference reaction. This excessive show of emotion is a result of reexperiencing
feelings about her son's behavior in her relationship with the noncompliant patient. It is impor-
tant for the doctor to identify this reaction because it can interfere with her medical judgement.
In positive transference patients have a high level of confidence in the doctor. Patients may also
over-idealize or develop sexual feelings toward the doctor. In negative transference, patients be-
come resentful or angry toward the doctor if their desires and expectations are not realized. This
may lead to noncompliance with medical advice. This doctor's reaction to the patient is unlikely
to be related to dislike or fear of the patient.
1-D. Statements like "I can't stop smoking because I'll gain weight," or "when I'm sick, I only
want to eat junk food" are examples of the defense mechanisms of rationalization and regression,
respectively. In rationalization, a person distorts her perception of an event so that its negative
outcome seems reasonable, (i.e., because she feels unable to stop smoking), this patient claims
(and so she reasonably feels) that gaining weight is worse than smoking, a life-threatening habit.
In regression, ill patients revert to behavior patterns like those seen in someone of a younger age,
(i.e., eating junk food). Defense mechanisms such as these are unconscious mental techniques
which decrease anxiety and help people to maintain a sense of equilibrium and self-esteem.
2-C. In Freud's structural theory, the mind is divided into the id, ego, and superego. The id op-
erates completely on an unconscious level while the ego, and superego operate partly on an un-
conscious and partly on preconscious and conscious levels.
3-C. The id is present at birth, the ego begins to develop immediately after birth, and the super-
ego is developed by about age 6 years.
Chapter 6
Psychoanalytic Theory
/
53
4-C. This patient who relates that she wakes up fully dressed at least twice a week and receives
phone calls from men whom she does not remember meeting is exhibiting dissociatioe identity dis-
order (multiple personality disorder). Dissociation, separating part of one's consciousness from
real life events, is the defense mechanism used by individuals with this disorder. It is likely that
this patient met the men who have her phone number but does not remember meeting them be-
cause at that time she was showing another personality (see also Chapter 14).
5-D. Regression, going back to a less mature way of behaving, is the defense mechanism used
by this woman scheduled for surgery the next day who insists that her mother stay overnight in
the hospital with her.
6-B. Sublimation, expressing an unacceptable emotion in a socially acceptable way, is classified
as a mature defense mechanism. Denial, dissociation, regression, and intellectualization are all
classified as less mature defense mechanisms.
7-B. The patient who becomes very angry at his doctor for being late is showing a negative trans-
ference reaction. This excessive show of emotion is a result of reexperiencing feelings about his
father's lateness for important family events in his relationship with the doctor. In positive trans-
ference, a patient has confidence in and may idealize the doctor. In countertransference, a doc-
tor's feelings about a patient who reminds her of a close friend or relative can interfere with her
medical judgement. The patient's reaction to the doctor is unlikely to be related to dislike of or
the doctor.
8-E. Primary process thinking is associated with pleasure seeking, disregards logic and reality,
has no concept of time, and is not accessible to the conscious mind. Secondary process thinking
is logical and is associated with reality.
9-B.
Memory of the details of the Krebs cycle, while no longer in the forefront of the medical stu-
dent's mind, can be recalled relatively easily one week after the examination. This memory there-
fore resides in the preconscious mind. The unconscious mind contains repressed thoughts and
feelings, which are not available to the conscious mind. The conscious mind contains thoughts
that a person is currently aware of. See Explanation 10 (below) for definitions of the ego and
superego.
10-D. The superego is associated with moral values and conscience and controls impulses of the
id.
This teenager who steals from family members and friends and tortures the family cat is
showing deficiencies in his superego. Children and adolescents under age 18 years who have poor
superego development have conduct disorder (see Chapter 15). The id contains instinctive sex-
ual and aggressive drives and is not influenced by external reality. The ego also controls the ex-
pression of the id, sustains satisfying interpersonal relationships and, through reality testing,
maintains a sense of reality about the body and the external world.
11-J. In displacement, the man's personally unacceptable angry feelings toward his wife are
taken out on his dog.
12-1. In sublimation, the surgeon reroutes his unconscious, unacceptable wish for committing a
violent act to a socially acceptable route (cutting people during surgery).
13-E. Using projection, the husband attributes his unconscious, unacceptable sexual feelings to-
ward another woman to his wife.
14-G. In reaction formation, the man denies his unconscious fear of flying and embraces the op-
posite idea by stating that he loves airplanes.
Learning Theory
Typical Board Question
A 52-year-old woman has undergone three sessions of chemotherapy
in a
hospital. Before
the fourth session,
she
becomes nauseous when
she
enters the hospital lobby.
This
patient's
reaction is
a result
of the type of learning
best
described as
(A) operant conditioning
(B) classical conditioning
(C)
modeling
(
D)
shaping
(E)
biofeedback
(
Answer in "Answers and Explanations" at
end
of Chapter)
I.
Overview
A. Learning is the acquisition of new behavior patterns.
B. Methods of learning include classical conditioning and operant condi-
tioning.
C. Classical and operant conditioning are the basis of behavioral treatment
techniques, such as systematic desensitization, aversive conditioning, flood-
ing, biofeedback, token economy, and cognitive therapy (see Chapter 16).
II. Classical Conditioning
A. Principles. In classical conditioning, a natural, or reflexive response
(behavior) is elicited by a learned stimulus (a cue from an internal or ex-
ternal event).
B. Elements of classical conditioning
1.
An unconditioned stimulus is something that automatically, without
having to be learned, produces a response (e.g., the odor of food).
2.
An unconditioned response is a natural, reflexive behavior that does
not have to be learned (e.g., salivation in response to the odor of food).
55
56
/
Behavioral Science
3.
A conditioned stimulus is something that produces a response follow-
ing learning (e.g., the sound of the lunch bell).
4.
A conditioned response is a behavior that is learned by an association
that is made between a conditioned stimulus and the an unconditioned
stimulus (e.g., salivation in response to the lunch bell).
C. Response acquisition, extinction, and stimulus generalization
l. In acquisition, the conditioned response (e.g., salivation in response to
the lunch bell) is learned.
2. In extinction, the conditioned response decreases if the conditioned
stimulus (e.g., the sound of the lunch bell) is never again paired with the
unconditioned stimulus (e.g., the odor of food).
3. In stimulus generalization, a new stimulus (e.g., a fire bell) that re-
sembles a conditioned stimulus (e.g., the lunch bell) causes a conditioned
response (e.g., salivation).
D. Aversive conditioning. An unwanted behavior (e.g., setting fires) is
paired with a painful, or aversive, stimulus (e.g., a painful electric shock).
An association is created between the unwanted behavior (fire-setting) and
the aversive stimulus (pain) and the fire-setting ceases.
E. Learned helplessness
1.
An animal receives a series of painful electric shocks from which it is un-
able to escape.
2.
By classical conditioning, the animal learns that there is an association
between an aversive stimulus (e.g., painful electric shock) and the in-
ability to escape.
3.
Subsequently, the animal makes no attempt to escape when shocked or
when faced with any new aversive stimulus; instead the animal becomes
hopeless and apathetic.
4.
Learned helplessness in animals may be a model system for depression
(often characterized by hopelessness and apathy) in humans.
F. Imprinting is the tendency of organisms to make an association with and
then follow the first thing they see after birth or hatching (in birds).
III.
Operant Conditioning
A. Principles
1.
Behavior is determined by its consequences for the individual. The con-
sequence, or reinforcement, occurs immediately following a behavior.
2. In operant conditioning, a behavior that is not part of the individual's
natural repertoire can be learned through reward or punishment.
B. Features
1.
The likelihood that a behavior will occur is increased by reinforce-
ment and decreased by punishment. (Table 7-1)
a.
Types of reinforcement include:
Chapter 7
Table 7-1. Features of Operant Conditioning
Example: A mother would like her 8-year-old son to stop hitting his 6-year-old brother. She can
achieve this goal by using one
of
the following features
of
operant conditioning
Extinction
2.
a.
b.
C. Shaping and modeling
Behavior is elim- Child stops his hitting
inated by non-
behavior when the
reinforcement
behavior is ignored
by his mother
Learning Theory
/
J%
Comments
Reward or reinforcement
(praise) increases desired
behavior (kindness
toward brother)
A reward can be praise or
attention as well as a
tangible reward
like money
Active avoidance of an
aversive stimulus (being
scolded) increases desired
behavior (kindness
toward brother)
Delivery of an oversive
stimulus (scolding)
decreases unwanted
behavior (hitting brother)
rapidly but not permanently
Extinction is more effective
than punishment for
long-term reduction in
unwanted behavior
There may be an initial
increase in hitting behavior
before it disappears
(1)
Positive reinforcement (reward) is the introduction
of
a posi-
tive stimulus that results in an increase in the rate
of
behavior.
(2)
Negative reinforcement (escape) is the removal
of
an aversive
stimulus that also results in an increase in the rate
of
behavior.
b.
Punishment is the introduction
of
an aversive stimulus aimed at re-
ducing the rate
of
an unwanted behavior.
Extinction in operant conditioning is the gradual disappearance
of
a
learned behavior when reinforcement (reward) is withheld.
The pattern, or schedule,
of
reinforcement affects how quickly a
behavior is learned and how quickly a behavior becomes extinguished
when it is not rewarded (Table 7-2).
Resistance to extinction is the force which prevents the behavior
from disappearing when a reward is withheld.
1.
Shaping involves rewarding closer and closer approximations
of
the
wanted behavior until the correct behavior is achieved (e.g., a child lear-
ing to write).
2.
Modeling is a type
of
observational learning (e.g., an individual behaves
in a manner similar to that
of
someone she admires).
Feature
Effect on
Behavior
Example
Positive
Behavior is
Child increases his
reinforcement increased kind behavior
by reward
toward his younger
brother to get
praise from his
mother
Negative Behavior is
Child increases his
reinforcement increased by
kind behavior
avoidance or
toward his younger
escape
brother to avoid
being scolded
Punishment
Behavior is
Child decreases his
decreased by
hitting behavior
suppression
after his mother
scolds him
ment
Example
A teenager receives a
candy bar each time
she puts a dollar
into a vending
machine. One time
she puts a dollar in
and nothing comes
out. She never buys
candy from the
machine again.
A man is paid
$10 for every five
hats he makes.
He makes as many
hats as he can
during his shift.
A student has an
anatomy quiz every
Friday. He studies
for ten minutes on
Wednesday nights,
and for 2 hours on
Thursday nights.
After a slot machine
pays off $5 for a
single quarter, a
woman plays $50 in
quarters despite the
fact that she receives
no further payoffs.
After 5 minutes of
fishing in a lake
a man catches a
large fish. He then
spends 4 hours
waiting for
another bite.
Effect on behavior
Behavior (putting in a dollar
to receive candy) is rapidly
learned but disappears
rapidly (has low resistance
to extinction) when not
reinforced (no candy
comes out).
Fast response rate (many
hats are made quickly)
The response rate (studying)
increases toward end of each
the interval (week).
When graphed, the response
rate forms a scalloped
curve.
The behavior (playing the slot
machine) continues (is
highly resistant to
extinction) despite
the fact that it is only
reinforced (winning
money) after a large but
variable number of responses
The behavior (fishing)
continues (is highly
resistant to extinction)
despite the fact that
it is only reinforced
(a fish is caught) after varying
certain time intervals
5
58
/
Behavioral Science
Table 7-2. Schedules of Reinforc
Schedule
Reinforcement
Continuous
Presented after
every response
Fixed ratio
Presented after
a designated
number of
responses
Fixed interval
Presented after
a designated
amount of
time
Variable ratio
Presented after
a random and
unpredictable
number of
responses
Variable
Presented after
interval a random and
unpredictable
amount of
time